Consider this:
"What we call cheating may be interpreted differentially.I have noticed that among some football players working out assignments together or even sharing answers or allowing other football players to copy is almost like a(n) obligation-as if a good football player should help another football player.So is there a sport-cultural imperative?I taught at an institution where it has been said that football players were big cheats." Could I please ask the writer to state categorically whether he is or is not implying that copying someone else's work is wrong for some people and acceptable for others? Sincerely, Stuart ___________________________________________________________________ Stuart: you are assuming that the Eurocentric consensus applies equally to all situations. Just consider this from Semantic theory: if there is not a word for cheating in a certain culture then cheating does not exist in that culture.I can relate this to my studies of stuttering across cultures.Way way back Speech Pathologists at Iowa embarked on a research program to investigate stuttering among native Americans. They could not find one stuttering Indian so they asserted that stuttering did not exist among certain native American tribes because there was no word for stuttering in the native American language .Andsince I am the cross-cultural dude on Tips,I have made similar enquiries re the Mapuche people of Chile. What I am implying is that among cultures where cheating,bribery and so on are an everyday affair then the value of those constructs are not significantly meaningful. The wife of the late Egyptian President Sadat,supposedly got a PhD without her doing most of the work herself.And she got a six figure salary to teach one or two classes in some U.S institution. So whereas your approach is rational it may not be exported to some cultural reality. Hope this helps. Michael Sylvester,PhD Daytona Beach,Florida --- To make changes to your subscription contact: Bill Southerly ([email protected])
