On Thu, 13 Feb 2003 00:42:24 +0000 "Charles P. Locke" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
>"when  did Noah  get drunk and sleep with his offspring "
 
apologies for the confusion--sorry, my bad
--
regardless, the main point endures--(already 'righteous') Noah didn't gain from following laws
 
and he knew he couldn't: why didn't he curse himself--he didn't 'curse' himself per se for the family problem he created (gettin' drunk, gettin' naked, etc. at bedtime--where was his wife?:-)
 
ftr, she had disappeared..
 
isn't Moses subtle(?); whoever makes the laws gets to bless and curse the subjects--in God's case, that's Israel, but the OT pain of it all is that Israel is his consistently unblessable offspring, according to law
 

 

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