I need to clean this up a bit because it's getting confusing. I will erase some stuff and write my comments in red.
jt: Then what is "He came to His own and His own received Him not" (John 1:11) saying? John goes on to say "But as many as received Him, to them He gave the power to become children of God [....] who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God." (His disciples must be born of God or born again). 
 
Why would verse 7-10 speak of the WORLD, verse 11 speak of JEWS, and verse 12-13 speak of the WORLD? Doesn't it make sense to keep the flow flowing?
 
Here are your texts for today: Luke 23.27; "there were following him a great multitude of the people" does not necessarily mean they were all His disciples. 
 
It also doesn't mean that they weren't. You certainly wouldn't have people weeping for someone they want to see dead.
 
John 19.13 (the Stone Pavement can hold 45 people comfortably, 200 people if they're cramped); The judgment seat at the place called the pavement is where Pilate tried to exonerate Him and the crowd cried "crucify Him, crucify Him" So there was no loyalty to Him there. 
 
It's easy to filter a crowd and only allow 45 to 200 people supporters if you have an agenda. Also, the passages seems to indicate that coercion was occurring in the crowd by the leaders of the Sadducees.
 
Acts 2.41, 6.7, 15.5. (myriads who are zealous) Yes 3,000 souls were added by Peter's sermon and after Pentecost when His disciples received power from on high the number of disciples increased but this is after the crucifixion. 
 
Thank you for agreeing that there was not a national rejection. 
 
jt: The scriptures teach that He was "rejected by His own" and "wounded in the house of his friends" Romans Chapter 11 addresses Israel's rejection ATST stating that it was not total and will not be final. 
 
I answered this above. However there's a bit more. Why is that any different than Gentile rejection? For some reason, non-Jews see individual Jewish rejection as so much greater a crime. Perhaps it is since their forefathers were given the oracles of God and should have known better, but there is a partial veil given as well -- a veil fertilized by Non-Jewish persecution of the Jewish people. It's really hard for the average Jewish person to accept a Messiah whose followers have killed and trampled the Jewish people for nearly 1,700 years. If I can understand the difficulty, surely God understands and loves them in spite of the difficulty. If I can understand why a Jewish man can be angry at God for allowing the Holocaust.. God understands as well.
 
(cf. Genesis 18:32)  Sodom and Gomorrah were still destroyed, it was just delayed; this is an example of Abraham's intercession and what it means to be a friend of God. I don't see how it ties in to Israel's rejection of Christ as their Messiah.  As a Nation they are still looking and they are still saying to each other: "Next year in Jerusalem" 
 
You completely missed the point of the passage. Ten righteous men DID NOT EXIST  IN SODOM -- that's why it was destroyed.
 
I've read that Matthew is the one gospel that was written primarily for a Jewish audience. A good example of how the Holy Spirit communicates is that of Peter's sermon in Acts 2.  People were in Jerusalem from all over Europe and Asia to celebrate the Passover and when Peter spoke they all heard him and understood in whatever language they spoke. I don't believe this was a one time phenomenon.  One does not have to be Jewish or Greek to have understanding that comes from God by way of the Holy Spirit.
 
The were in Jerusalem to celebrate Shavuot (Pentecost). The only ones in the House (the Temple) were Jewish people, Israelis, and proselytes. The different languages spoken here are the languages of the lands of the Diaspora. You're right that understanding comes from the Holy Spirit, but not exclusive of study, hard work, and sitting at the feet of Godly and learned men and women as some would teach. 1 Peter 3.15 (seen in action in Acts 18:22 ff, Acts 8:34-35); Philippians 1:7; Acts 6:8-10; Isaiah 1:18; Jude 3; Titus 1:9.
 
I think Matthew was written for a more Gentile audience because of Matthew's parenthetical breaks that are used to explain standard Jewish life in the Second Commonwealth. This would be common knowledge for a Jewish audience.
 
None other than the fact that the Levitical system of offerings was more than 400 years into the future and there is no record of any other offering but that of sin.  When A&E sinned God killed an animal because without the shedding of blood there is no remission.  It's the pagan gods to take offerings of fruit and vegetables.
 
You are working in the assumption that your translation accurately represents the Hebrew text, and I showed that it does not. Cain did not offer fruits and vegetables. It was not a pagan thing. Another thing to consider... what other god do you think Cain was offering sacrifices to? He's the first progeny of humanity!
 
.....My belief is that the blessings and curses of Deuteronomy which would be considered part of God's Commandments and Statutes still stand but that the Levitical Law was nailed to the Cross.  Romans 10:4 tells us that Christ is the end of the law... (ATST we are still responsible to fulfill the "Royal Law" in Him). 
 
Yeshua said, "Do not suppose that I came to throw down the law (Torah) or the prophets (the rest of the Old Testament)--I did not come to throw down, but to fill it full; for, verily I say to you, till that the heaven and the earth may pass away, one iota or one tittle may not pass away from the law, till that all may come to pass. Whoever therefore may loose one of these commands--the least--and may teach men so, least he shall be called in the reign of the heavens, but whoever may do and may teach them, he shall be called great in the reign of the heavens." It's my understanding that this includes each and every commandment in the Bible. Therefore, whenever I am told NOT TO KEEP this or that commandment and I'm given a New Testament passage to "prove" the point, I look closely at the context of the whole passage, chapter, or book and determine exactly what's going on. I study hard in order to make nothing of God's Word void and of non-effect.
 
For instance, Galatians seem to indicate that circumcision is superceded by baptism, internal circumcision, or circumcision of the heart (depending on who is speaking). However, Galatians is written after the Jerusalem council of Acts 15 and is specifically addressed to those who "seek to be justified by the Law." For those who believe that salvation is not complete until circumcision is administered, the circumcision avails your NOTHING. However, that does not mean that circumcision itself, if done orderly and lawfully, is nothing. It is still a sign of the covenant of God's people. Is that not something God's people should want? A sign of that covenant carved into our skin? I'm reminded of God's covenant every time I relieve myself. It's a wonderful, beautiful thing. Had I been circumcised to complete salvation, it would actually be "uncircumcision." It would be "works-based salvation."
 
 
And when they heard it, they glorified God. And they said to him, "You see, brother, how many thousands there are among the Jews of those who have believed; they are all zealous for the law...?"   (Acts 21:20) 
 
Thank you, Judy, for this conversation... Even when we disagree. 
-- slade

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