Paul wrote in Romans that we should not judge another man's servant. What does that have to do with being in one accord? Does the fact that Paul was talking/writing to people who may not have been in one accord mean that the group of believers gathered in Acts were not all in one accord? Could he have been writing the ones in Romans precisely because they were not in one accord? Can you see where the Bible is more reliable than your experience? If you or I never see accord this side of glory, the only conclusion we can draw from that is that we are falling short of what we should be. All the experiences of all the Christians over all time cannot make me think otherwise. The Bible is true.
Terry
The fact that they were of one mind does not mean that they thought exactly alike. They were of one mind in specific considerations. My wife and I are of mind in a few very specific areas. One of those considerations is the question of love for each other and what that means. We agree in that and because of that agreement, our marriage is solid. We are in deed, one, and becoming more so each day. That does not mean that we think alike on all issues. Romans 14 is about dealing with those issues. There is unity in the Family of God but only on the terms described in Ro 14 --- or God would not have included that passage of thought in the bibilical message. Yes, we are to be of the same mind -- Romans 14 is part of that instruction.
John
