[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
In a message dated 10/8/2004 8:04:01 PM Pacific Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:Paul wrote in Romans that we should not judge another man's servant. What does that have to do with being in one accord? Does the fact that Paul was talking/writing to people who may not have been in one accord mean that the group of believers gathered in Acts were not all in one accord? Could he have been writing the ones in Romans precisely because they were not in one accord? Can you see where the Bible is more reliable than your experience? If you or I never see accord this side of glory, the only conclusion we can draw from that is that we are falling short of what we should be. All the experiences of all the Christians over all time cannot make me think otherwise. The Bible is true. Terry |
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- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Terry Clifton
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Knpraise
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Terry Clifton
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Knpraise
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Terry Clifton
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Knpraise
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Terry Clifton
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Knpraise
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Knpraise
- Re: [TruthTalk] Read it and weep! Terry Clifton

