Re: [TruthTalk] What is sin?

[LaurHamm]

In a message dated 10/20/2004 9:41:51 AM Central Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes: Hi Laura,   Let me rephrase some of this.  Torah can be compared to logos in the sense that logos means word (lowercase w meaning scripture).  Torah cannot be compared to Logos in the sense of John 1.1 where Logos means Word (uppercase w meaning a Person).  When you quote a verse from the NT it is the word, not the Word.  Christ does refer to the law and quotes the Torah.  He also came to fulfill it.  These points imply that Torah must be distinct from the Word.  When Christ refers to Torah He is not refering to himself.  When Christ quotes from the Torah He is not quoting Himself.  When Christ fulfills the Torah He is not fulfilling Himself.  The Torah must be kept distinct from the Person of Jesus Christ for this to make any type of logical sense.  Translators of scripture have almost universally translated logos in John 1.1 to mean the Person of Jesus Christ, which is why it is given a captial W (Word).  Their intent was to differentiate between logos and Logos (word and Word, thing and Person).  The apostle John took a word (logos) that was well known to his readers.  He then appropriated it to the Person of Jesus Christ.  This is not 'spiritualizing' words as Judy would have it (that would be gnosticism).  This is a very real earthy thing.  Using the vocabulary of his day John re-molds a word (pun intended) to mean something distinct from the original interpretation.  When things are submitted to Christ they change - even people.   Jonathan Hughes Thanks for the explanation.  Laura