1 John 3;2 or John 3;2 ?
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
Too much dependence on my own sense of philosophical soundness? In other words, why?
Would I John 3:2 have anything to do with the discussion.
JD
[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
In a message dated 1/21/2005 11:31:10 AM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
A 'philosophical impossibility' is NOT ( I repeat not) the deciding criterion on such matters.
Too much dependence on my own sense of philosophical soundness? In other words, why?
Would I John 3:2 have anything to do with the discussion.
JD
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