Re: [TruthTalk] Definition of Mormon Please

[Kevin Deegan]

Be glad to discuss this with you.

 

To start let's look at John chapter 3 verse 13

And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.

Do you agree:

1) Jesus was the one who said this

2) Jesus is the "Son of Man"

 

Then the question is;

Read the verse and tell me:

Where was the "Son of Man"?

Dave Hansen <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

Kevin Deegan wrote:

Jesus is Revealed in the Holy Bible as OMNIPRESENT

John 3 the son of man who came down and yet is IN Heaven

DAVEH:  I guess you'll have to spell it out for me, Kevin.  I see nothing in ch 3 that lends support to your theory.

God the Father is Revealed the Holy Bible as OMNIPRESEN

Does he not fill Heaven & Earth?

These are clear teachings of the Bible

DAVEH:  Give me some Bible references, and the let's discuss it.

not some Church council or some Prophet.

 

All I need is a 5th grade education so I can read the Old Black Book

DAVEH:  I'll ask you the same question I asked John........How much of what you believe about the omnipresence of God is based on the T-Doctrine?

Dave Hansen <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

In a message dated 1/21/2005 7:24:28 PM Pacific Standard Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:

DAVEH:  ???  Why do you think Jesus is omnipresent

Well,   because He is God.

DAVEH:   But why do you define God as omnipresent?  Is it due to the T-Doctrine?  

JD

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