But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.
Already did it was not inserted in 1611it is in the greek
MT 4:4 ramati but by every "WORD" of God
ouk ep artw monw zhsetai o anqrwpoV all epi panti rhmati ekporeuomenw dia stomatoV qeou
Deuteronomy 8:3 the word "dabar" which is Hebrew for "word" is not found anywhere in the verse.
Do you think that the 1611 scholars used Matt 4:4 and their greek text and inserted the English word into the O.T. text because of the gk text? Is this not more likely than the supposition that the NT writer was somehow quoting the KJV? The KJ translators obviously saw a "problem" and did what they could to solve that problem. The NASV translators, on the other hand, decided to remain true to the Hebrew and Greek text, individually, and allow the reader to solve the "problem" for herself.
JD
