From: Dave <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
DAVEH: Yes, Perry. I am making that assumption. Do you think I've assumed incorrectly? Do you believe they were not Christians?
Yes, I think you have assumed incorrectly. Paul does not identify "they" as Christians, or as Kevin pointed out, as "we". But the way in which Paul addresses "they", plus the fact that baptism for the dead is mentioned nowhere else in scripture, leads me to believe that not only were "they" not Christians, but that Christians did not practice baptism for the dead.
Even if we were to pretend for a moment that "they" were Christians, we cannot take such a casual statement, posed as a question for teaching purposes, and build a doctrine around it. If you DO consider that as a valid way of determining doctrine, then why do the mormons not "take up serpents" or "drink deadly things" (Mk 16:18)?
Perry
Charles Perry Locke wrote:
From: Dave <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
DAVEH: Then why do you think those early Christians who practiced proxy baptism were doing it? Do you think they believed was simply a *REPRESENTATION*? Or do you suppose they thought it might have more significance than simply being a "*LIKENESS*".
Dave, you are making an assumption here that is not biblically supported! Paul never identified "they" which are baptized for the dead as Christians!
Perry
While baptism is certainly symbolic, do you think it may also represent a covenant?
BTW......Do you think a man of faith can be saved IF he does not repent?
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---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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