Interesting, Perry.  Thanks for sharing.  I never questioned it until you
brought it up in the first place. Izzy

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Charles Perry Locke
Sent: Monday, June 20, 2005 8:26 PM
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?



Well, late the other night I was studying mark 16:14-20. My purpose was to 
contrast it with Romans 10:9-10. I wanted to make sure I understood it 
correctly. I was reading it over the second or third time when, without 
warning my perspective shifted, and I saw the passage entirely differently 
than I did when I began reading it. I had traditionally interpreted "he" as 
mankind", and "baptised" as water baptism.

Many use verse 16 as a prooftext that water baptism is necessary for 
salvation, and many use it as a prooftext that when one is saved and 
baptised, one recvieves the fruit of the spirit. With my new insight, those 
two concepts are no longer a question. They are not disproven, either, but 
these verses no longer will support them as prooftexts of those ideas.

As I read the verses, I focused on one of the main subjects of the passage. 
Namely the unbelief of the 11 as expressed in v14. Can you believe that? All

that they had been through with Jesus, and some still had unbelief. Jesus 
was about to entrust these men with spreading the gospel and they still had 
unbelief! What if they still had not believed at pentecost?

As I read it became apparent to me that while jesus was telling them their 
commission to go into the world and preach the gospel. But, in verse 16 he 
continues with his admonition, by 1) telling them that they would be 
baptised (by the Holy Spirit), and what their state would be IF they still 
unbeleived at that time!

In verse 17 he goes on to say that those that believed would receive gifts 
to be used in spreading the gospel, and this is confirmed in verse 20, which

confirms that as they went out they had these gifts.

This is easily discerned in these verses (14-20) if, as you read it, you 
allow every pronoun (he, them, they) to refer to the 11 (those to whom this 
whole passage applies), and allow that the baptism he speaks of is the 
baptism of the Holy Spirit that occurred at pentecost.

Perry


>From: Terry Clifton <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>Reply-To: [email protected]
>To: [email protected]
>Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Who is he?
>Date: Mon, 20 Jun 2005 16:53:56 -0500
>
>Charles Perry Locke wrote:
>
>>John, thanks for responding. Jesus indeed spoke v. 16, but to whom was 
>>Christ referring when he used "He"?
>
>=====================================================================
>My opinion, Perry, without a lot of pondering, based on what I see in the 
>NKJV. "He" is generic for any saint, any saved person who is walking the 
>walk, the narrow path  that results in salvation for those that endure to 
>the end. It is in clear contrast to the next "he" in that verse who will be

>condemned.  I do not know the original word used here for baptized, but I 
>assume it means believers baptism, immersion in water in obedience to God's

>command to show publicly that you have denied self and will now follow 
>Christ.
>Now lay it on us.  What has God, the Holy Spirit shown you?
>Terry
>
>>
>>
>
>=
>----------
>"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may 
>know how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) 
>http://www.InnGlory.org
>
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----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6)
http://www.InnGlory.org

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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
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