I'm answering for Judy only to illustrate that she is not that hard to
understand. I have read the same posts as everybody else here. Judy, if I
have misunderstood your position, please correct my answers. Thanks.
Debbie wrote:
> Can you please recap Judy's belief for me?
> Does she believe Jesus is God?
Yes.
Debbie wrote:
> Does she believe the Holy Spirit is God?
Yes.
Debbie wrote:
> Does she believe in a Binity?
No, she believes in the Trinity, but would probably prefer to use the term
Godhead instead because the word "Trinity" is not Biblical.
Debbie wrote:
> Or is it just that she believes the second Person
> of the Trinity wasn't always Son?
Right, that's it, he was not always "Son."
Debbie wrote:
> I think the term "begotten" is used only once, and can
> be translated otherwise in that place. (Am I right about
> that?)
No.
Debbie wrote:
> I think we are requiring the language to do too
> much if we get hung up on the begetting...
I think the only reason to be lax with language here is because it does not
fit with our preconceived notions of eternal sonship. The psalmist wrote
the following:
Psalms 2:7
(7) I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son;
this day have I begotten thee.
This psalm clearly draws attention to a point in time: THIS DAY have I
begotten thee.
Which day was it? How about when he was born of a woman? What is the
problem with this understanding, that Jesus became the son of God when he
was born of the woman?
If we read Hebrews 1, we even see a parallel with quoting this passage
("Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee") and the phrase, "WHEN he
bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world." Why would anyone want to
make these events separate?
Hebrews 1:5-6
(5) For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this
day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall
be to me a Son?
(6) And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he
saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
And just look at the passage there that says, "I WILL BE to him a Father,
and he SHALL BE to me a Son." What does the future tense mean here if he
has always been a Son?
Peace be with you.
David Miller.
----------
"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know
how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org
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