John wrote:
> Actually, he first brings up the fact that
> Jesus  (the Word) IS GOD !!!
> ... I do see a heavy emphasis before and
> after the statement in v 14 that Jesus is God.

We all agree with this, John.  The question is, was he "Jesus" or "Christ" 
or "The Son" prior to his being born of Mary?

John wrote:
> Placing Him in (eis) the bosom of the Father demands
> an intimate incorporation of the two  -  the Father nad
> the unique Son.

Yes, they were intimately incorporated, but were they father and unique son? 
You are begging the question now... circular reasoning... a tautology.

David Miller wrote:
> This clearly refers to his unique birth,

John wrote:
> I do not know why you say this.   "clearly refers"
> means to me that this is the opinion of theologians,
> students and scholars.

No, it means that the inference is very clear if you just read the context 
and try real hard not to read your own personal ideas into the text.  Often, 
theologians, students, and scholars jump on the popular bandwagon and do not 
always exegete passages properly.

John wrote:
> You are aware,  I am sure, that there is a host of scholarship
> that disagrees with your conclusion.

Of course, and you are certainly aware that there is scholarship that agrees 
with me.

John wrote:
> If Jesus is the eternal Son, "begotten" simply cannot
> refer to the  virgin birth.

Why not?  Even if you insist on circular reasoning and having your 
conclusion before you have developed the evidence and logic to get there, 
there is nothing about his being a Son that would insist that "monogenes" 
cannot refer to his divine birth.  Please note that this exact same word 
"monogenes" translated here as "only begotten" is used in Heb. 11:17 in 
reference to Isaac.  I hope my comments make you study.  :-)

Peace be with you.
David Miller. 


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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know 
how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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