From: "David Miller" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Judy wrote:
He didn't go from holy to sinful and then back to holy again.
 
David Miller wrote:
2 Corinthians 5:21 (21) For he hath made him to be sin for us, who
knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
 
Judy wrote:
He layed all of our sin and iniquities upon Him at Calvary David and our
righteousness is based upon the blood of the cross.
 
But you said he did not go from holy to sinful and then back to holy again.
Have you changed your mind or simply your definitions?
 
jt: I haven't changed anything. We are talking about two different things
You are talking about Jesus resisting flesh during his earthly ministry. I am
referring to when he became a curse for us by hanging on a tree. Other
than this He was under no curse.
 
David Miller wrote:
>> You are missing my point.  It is a logical point about the
>> word "likeness."  If Phil. 2:7 says Jesus "was made in the
>> likeness of men," and yet we agree that Jesus was truly
>> a man and not just an imitation or resemblance of a man,
>> then we know that the word "likeness" used in Romans
>> 8:3 might be used in the same way.  Therefore, you should
>> acknowledge that this is a possible way to read this passage.
>> From my perspective, the word "likeness" is actually emphasizing
>> the sameness of Christ's flesh to ours rather than suggesting that
>> it was a counterfeit or imitation flesh.
 
Judy wrote:
> I find it impossible to accept this one point based on logic
> when it flies in the face of the rest of God's revealed Word.
 
I'm only asking you to accept this as a possible interpretation of Romans
8:3 when considered alone.  It is important to see if you can accept this as
a possibility, to see if you know how to think outside your present
paradigm.
 
jt: I don't believe so David.  My present paradigm says that God is holy
and that his only begotten son - the Promise of the Father, is by nature
holy also.
 
What you are doing is hanging on to a model that has a lot of baggage with
it.  You refuse to hear me because it is contrary to a model that you
already have in your mind, something formed in your mind for over 30 years.
 
jt: So you don't think I have changed in over 30yrs?  Thanks a lot.
I'm glad you are not infallible.

The only way you can consider a different model is to be open to some
different definitions and a different model.  I can't cause you to consider
another model all at once.  Your mind can't process it all.  Rather, you
must consider your assumptions on how you read certain passages one by one.
 
jt: I don't depend on the processing of my mind.  Nor do I look to logic
and mens philosophies.  Spiritual truth can only be apprehended
spiritually.

In this case, I am looking for an honest analysis of Romans 8:3.  I think
you should be able to agree that based upon consideration of this passage
alone, it is possible that Jesus was sent in the form of sinful flesh. 
 
jt: I don't think it wise to put Jesus in a body of sinful flesh and make a sinful
flesh doctrine concerning Him based on what the word "likeness" means.
 
Once you agree about the acceptability of this interpretation, we will deal with
the other passages that seem to lean you toward the other interpretation of
this passage.
 
Judy wrote:
> God did not make the first Adam sinful, neither did He provide
> a sinful body for the second Adam. Everything God makes is
> good.
 
God did not directly make Jesus out of the dust of the ground.  His Holy
Spirit overshadowed Mary and caused HER to develop a child through normal
means.  The only unnatural aspect of it was that she did not conceive her
child through sexual intercourse with a man. 
 
jt: If we were honest David we would admit that we do not know how God
formed his Son in the womb of Mary.
 
Rather, through a mystical surgery of the Holy Spirit, her egg began the process
of development into a male body.  As I have said many times, there is no reason
to assume that Jesus was NOT genetically related to Mary. 
 
jt: And there is no reason to assume that He was even though he was just as
much a son since she gave birth to Him and raised Him.  I don't believe God
has a natural mother.  That is a rcc doctrine.
 
Based upon numerous passages of Scripture, I believe he was related to Mary,
and that he was genetically related to his brother James, and to his other brothers
and sisters as well. If we trace it back, I believe he was genetically related to David,
to Abraham, to Noah, and to Adam.
 
jt: Well that can be your theory but it can not be proven any more than the theory
of evolution.  Scripture juxtaposes the child of flesh and the child of promise all
through scripture and now you are trying to trace Jesus through the flesh.
 
So God did not directly make the flesh of Jesus.  God directly made Adam,
and Jesus was descended from Adam.  The body of Jesus ultimately came from
Adam.  Read the geneaology of Luke 3 for evidence of this.
 
jt: I don't agree. If God wanted Jesus to be genetically related to Adam then Mary
and Joseph could have had Him by procreation.  He wasn't born this way for a
purpose and that having to do with responsibility for the fall.  God held Adam
responsible in a way that Eve was not. Possibly because Adam was the one
who received the command not to eat of that tree.  She was deceived. He was
not. He chose to sin and this is where the responsibility lies.  This is why it is
the seed of the woman who bruised the serpent's head.
 
David Miller wrote:
>> If Romans 8:3 had left out the word "sinful" which
>> modifies flesh, I don't think you would be arguing
>> the way you are now about this word "likeness."
 
Judy wrote:
> The Holy Ghost put it there to describe us, not Him. We are sinful flesh and
He came in our likeness.
 
The prepositional phrase "in the likeness of sinful flesh" is modifying the
word "Son."  We are not mentioned anywhere in this verse.  The passage (Rom.
8:3) says, "God sending his Son in the likeness of sinful flesh..."  You are
mangling the verse and inventing a noun that is not there.  The subject is
the Son, whom God sent, and he was sent in the likeness of flesh.  What kind
of flesh?  Sinful flesh.  Whose flesh?  The flesh of the Son of God.  You
keep repeating that it describes us, not Him, but this is not true.  Read
the text.  There is no way for this text to be talking about us.  It is
talking about JESUS.  We were not sent by God in the likeness of sinful
flesh in order to condemn sin in the flesh.  Jesus was.
 
jt: David, you are making it so complicated that I know an ignorant fisherman
could never understand.  I don't see Paul using these kinds of exercises to
explain truth. He used great plainness of speech.
 
Judy wrote:
> If his flesh were exactly like ours then it would mean
> his flesh was sinful because our flesh is under the curse
> of Genesis 3:19 "Dust thou art and to dust thou shalt
> return" and Heb 9:27 "It is appointed to men once to
> die and after that the judgment"
 
Yes, Judy, now you are catching on.  Jesus came under the curse, and was
made a curse for us.  This is how he defeated the curse for us, because when
all was said and done, he did not deserve the curse.  The Justice of God
brought deliverance.
 
jt: So now you have a curse being made a curse.  Give me a break David.
Nowhere in scripture does it say this.  He became a curse when he chose to
hang on a sinners cross for you and for me.
 
Judy wrote: His flesh was under no such curse -
 
Now you are going back to your unbiblical model.
 
jt: I will refrain myself from stating the obvious.
 
Judy wrote: Death couldn't legally hold Him and "God did not allow
His holy one to see corruption" Ps 16:10, Acts 2:27, 13:35
 
Death could not hold him, but not because death was breaking the law by
trying to take him.  Rather, Jesus simply conquered death just like he had
first conquered sin.  In order to conquer death, Jesus came in the form of
mortal flesh.  In order to conquer sin, Jesus came in the form of sinful
flesh.
 
jt: If He was walking around in sinful flesh death would have had a cause. This
is why He could say "the prince of this world cometh and hath nothing IN ME"
IOW His being was holy and undefiled which is more than can be said for us
no matter how perfected we think we are.
 
Judy wrote: I thought this had something to do with "manly men" or some such
thing.  Jesus did not overcome by the power of his flesh David.
 
I'm sorry I came up with that analogy now.  I did not mean to say that Jesus
overcame by the power of his flesh.  He overcame by his spirit, and he overcame
both the devil and his flesh. 
 
jt: So out there in the wilderness Jesus had to overcome his own "sinful" flesh as
well as the devil? 
 
The analogy was just meant to illustrate how he might feel about the struggle he
experienced in the flesh, and the diminshing of this victory that some people on
this list make of it. 
 
jt: If you were walking in the kind of power he was walking in you wouldn't know
you had a flesh body David.  Mystics do that kind of stuff all the time empowered
by the other spirit.
 
Jesus truly struggled and learned obedience through his struggles, just like
we do.  His life was not a cakewalk anymore than ours is. 
 
jt: I don't see it as such a fleshly thing David. I think being a man of sorrows and
aquainted with grief had more to do with rejection and the obdurance and ignorance
of the people around Him.  From what you write I'm thinking that for you it is more
of a manly man thing.  But remember women are also to be conformed to His
image.
 
He constantly denied himself and did only what he saw his Father doing.  This
pleased the Father and perfected faith in him.  He is truly our example in everything,
and we may walk just as he walked, if we believe in him and put our confidence and
trust in him.
 
jt: Since He and the Father have always been ONE; I can't see how taking on a
body would have made His will any different than the will of the Father. He said it
was "His meat" to do the will of the Father.
 

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