----- Original Message -----
Sent: Tuesday, November 22, 2005 9:37
AM
Subject: Re: Fw: [TruthTalk]
corrector/revisor
So the two different translations are BOTH True?
You see the same meaning conveyed by:
NIV because by one sacrifice he has made perfect forever those who
are being made holy.
KJV For by one offering he hath perfected for ever
them that are sanctified.
One transaction is complete One is not, which for
you?
Yet even in the NIV the action being performed (in the
1st part of the verse) is already complete "one
sacrifice he has made perfect" and is MADE
Perfect!
Shouldn't it be translated "BEING MADE
PERFECT"?
And of course this is a Grievious ERROR inthe
KJV?
Which by the way that was the initial
ISSUE.
David Miller <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Kevin
wrote:
> I would like to know where you found the word
>
BEING in the text other than the MOOD which
> is an ENDING not
another word.
In Greek, it is much more common to make a single
word convey the mood and
tense and even object, but in English we
tend to add more words. The
authority to add "being" is the same
authority for adding "THEM THAT ARE."
It is something thought to be
communicated by the ending of the Greek text.
This is why the KJV
does not put these words in italics.
Peace be with you.
David
Miller.
----------
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