RE: Latin digraph characters (was: Re: Klingon silliness)

[Marco Cimarosti]

Douw Ewell wrote:
> Aren't Serbian and Croatian the standard example of two 
> "languages" that are 
> really the same language but are treated separately (a) for 
> political reasons 
> and (b) because Cyrillic is used to write the former and 
> Latin to write the 
> latter?  Are there any linguistic or vocabulary differences 
> between them?

<OT talking about languages, not scrips>

I think that the difference between the two is comparable to the difference
between British and American English. (Oops! I am a Latino, not an Anglo, so
change last 4 words to "Spanish and American Castillian" :-)

I.e., relatively big differences in the colloquial languages, but just a
handful of spelling and vucabulary variations in the unified literary
language.

I think, for instance, that "river" would be "rijeka" in Croatian and "reka"
in Serbian ("ријека" ad "река", in Cyrillic).

</OT>

_ Marco