>>From these observations it is clear to me that no-one ever gets a pint of beer in England when they ask for one - they get somewhat less - but how much less?
>>To explore this further, I measured the diameter of the glass and made an (informed and experienced) estimate of the depth of froth that's usually put on the top of the beer. I then calculated the froth to be very close to 70�millilitres. So my calculation went 568�mL � 70�mL = 498�mL that I rounded to 500�mL or half a litre. Perhaps everyone who orders a 'pint' in England is quite unaware that they are really drinking 'half litres'. Indeed, a minority of metric folk sometimes claim this in the UK. Its an old argument that doesn't hold water (pun intended) A few points to note: 1) If you fill a pint glass with 500ml of cider or lager (headless) it comes appallingly short of the brim 2) The pint glasses are poured into over a filtered catch - you will notice that when "heady" beers are poured the bar tender will continue to pour whilst beer is pouring outside and down the glass (a nightmare for "Barney"!). You are then presented with a pint (which will be wet down the side). 3) A reasonable head may be preferable, but you are in your legal right to hand the pint glass back and ask it to be "brimmed" 4) Indeed, it�s a messy business picking up a full pint, especially when you've had a few! 5) You won't know that many pubs have oversized glasses with a pint and half-pint mark scratched into the glass, this is to accommodate a head with no questions asked. Perhaps you are referring to th epint glasses they use in Spain? They have a mark on the bottom saying "570 ml" P.S. Next time I ask for a "pint" in paris and the head makes it so that its less than 500 ml, should I make some sort of assumption that they use "true American pints"? I don't think so.
