Re: OT: Question regarding condoms

[Jed Rothwell]

I wrote:

"At the peak of fertility, a woman has only roughly a 1% chance of becoming pregnant, so if 5% of condoms fail, and a couple always uses one during every phase of intercourse, they have roughly a 0.05% chance of pregnancy from that failure, which is tantamount to zero."

Oops. Not "from that failure." I meant: "They have roughly a 0.05% chance of pregnancy from one sex act." Obviously, if a simple condom without spermicide fails, they are back to the natural, unprotected pregnancy rate.

I do not recall the peak fertility rate, and I cannot find it. I think it is ~1%. Certainly not ~10%.

- Jed