This is a quick query, though if you'd like it to become a WikiEducator
discussion, that's fine!

For some work for the *British Journal of Educational Technology*, I have
come across some evidence that the formative / summative assessment
distinction is not clear in the US. I would like to pin this down further.

As far as I recall, people are aware of the distinction in the last dozen
or so countries in which I have worked. (The last occasion I recall there
being a problem was in Kuwait in 1991.)

So ...

*(a) Do you have any feel for how widespread the distinction is (or how
widespread the ignorance of it is)?* If so, please share your feeling with
me.

*(b) Do you believe the distinction is very clear / not very clear /
unclear / unknown among educators in the country or region where you are
working? *Please tell me your country / region in your reply.

Very best wishes, especially if we've met and/or worked together in the
past - Eric

*(Dr) Eric Deeson: Consultancy in Education and Training Technology,
Birmingham, UK
Reviews Editor - British Journal of Educational Technology*

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