He did not.  As is true of everything else about Marbury, there's a debate between legal realists--i.e., he didn't because it would have disserved the interests of the Federalist Party--and legalists--he didn't because in fact there was no lower court that had jurisdiction.

sandy

At 04:04 PM 8/19/2003, you wrote:

            I apologize if this question is old hat to many of you.  Does anyone know off the top of his or her head if Marbury sought a writ of mandamus in a lower court after losing in the Supreme Court?  Thank you in advance for any help on this issue.

 

            Mike Allen

 

Michael P. Allen

Assistant Professor of Law

Stetson University College of Law

1401 61st Street South

Gulfport, FL 33707

Phone:  (727) 562-7360

Fax:      (727) 347-3738

email:     [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 

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