Monica,

--- Monica Hall <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> 
> What are it's musical advantages?   It seems to be
> creating rather a 
> problem....Surely it would make more sense from a
> musical point of view to 
> tune the instrument straight down from treble to
> bass - like the violin, 
> harpsichord etc...
> 

There are a number of advantages to having the top two
strings down an octave: the ability to voice chords
very closely; the ability to double notes within a
chord for voice leading and increased volume; the
ability to set up and play suspensions without too
many awkward shapes that are difficult to transition
to and from musically; the ability to play the exact
same note in different  places without shifting for
tone color or to take advantage of a particular
temperment; the ability to easily play close melodic
intervals (i.e. thirds, seconds and even unisons) very
smoothly; and of course the cross-string effects.

Of course, many of these things are possible in a
"standard" tuning, too.  The re-entrant tuning,
however, gives more practical and easy options.  There
are of many solo pieces that are impossible to play in
anything BUT re-entrant tuning.  Note that most of the
above things are especially useful for someone
providing an accompaniment.  Lots of the solo
repertoire takes advantage of the tuning in a more
subtle way, however.

Chris 



> >> You seem to be suggesting that instrumental music
> was still
> >> essentially the same as vocal music in the 17th
> century but surely
> >> the whole point is that instruments have their
> own idioms which
> >> reflect what they are capable of. They don't
> simple imitate vocal
> >> music - even when they are accompanying it.
> >
> > I hope I'm not suggesting anything other than what
> I said -- that the
> > sound picture a 17th-century theorbist or
> guitarist had in his head
> > was a 17th-century sound picture first and a
> theorbo or guitar sound
> > picture second, and would have been dominated by
> the vocal models of
> > the day.
> 
> Certainly not as far as the guitar is concerned!  
> Singers can't strum 6/4 
> chords!  The earliest guitar music is very unvocal.
> >
> > Doesn't it strike you as odd that the only
> instruments in which we
> > have to discuss whether octaves should be
> displaced in melodic
> > passages are the instruments about which we're
> unsure of the
> > stringing?  Is it more reasonable to assume that
> they're an island in
> > the musical landscape, or that we haven't figured
> out the stringing
> > questions?
> 
> I see no reason why they shouldn't have their own
> peculiarities.   Certainly 
> other instruments do.   Harps weren't always fully
> chromatic.  Brass 
> instruments could only play the notes of the
> harmonic series and so on.
> 
> It would be interesting to know what sort of strings
> you are using to put a 
> high octave string on the second course of your
> theorbo.  There are people 
> who argue that you should have a high octave string
> on the 3rd course of 
> guitar - and then they tell you that they use
> nylgut.
> 
> Monica 
> 
> 
> 
> To get on or off this list see list information at
>
http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
> 



      
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