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In a message dated 1/30/2005 12:23:51 PM Eastern Standard Time,
[EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
There were, as I recall, multiple attempts to amend the document to rectify that situation, all of which failed. How strictly is "amend"
being used above? Were these attempts before or after
ratification? I am primarily interested in the Constitutional
Convention itself and the ratification period. Does the failure of the drafters
to include "God," for example, "We the People under divine authority (or simply
"under 'God')" in the Preamble or more authoritatively elsewhere in the
Constitution need explanation if one is to continue to believe that the
Founding generation was a deeply religious one? I am aware of the usual
attempts to explain the compatibility of a deep devotion to religion and to a
secular government. Were those the same arguments used at the time?
Of course, I'll read the
book.
Bobby
Robert Justin
Lipkin
Professor of Law Widener University School of Law Delaware |
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