Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-12 Thread James Oleske
Got it -- I see the distinction. To put it in the imposition terms the
Court used in Lee, one could say it's the difference between an employer
imposing his religious faith on his employees (e.g., by requiring them to
participate in prayer meetings contrary to their own beliefs) and an
employer imposing some of *the costs* of his religious faith on his
employees (e.g., denying them an employee benefit because of the
employer's religious opposition to the benefit). Even though Lee used the
former phrase, it clearly was relying on the latter concept when it
explained the burden that granting an employer exemption would impose on
the employee. Nonetheless, since that's the same burden on employees at
issue in Hobby Lobby, it would seem like Lee should still control. Alas, I
suspect a majority of the Court is not going to agree with my view on that
...

- Jim


On Thu, Jun 12, 2014 at 8:37 AM, Douglas Laycock dlayc...@virginia.edu
wrote:

 One issue at a time. Yes, Hobby Lobby’s claim goes away if we accept
 Marty’s argument that Hobby Lobby has a viable option to just discontinue
 its health insurance plan.



 I was addressing a different issue. Any burden on the employees is
 economic. They are not forced to adopt Hobby Lobby’s religious views, live
 by Hobby Lobby’s religious rules, or violate the rules of their own
 religions. But if Hobby Lobby is forced to pay for contraception coverage,
 the burden is religious. Only Hobby Lobby and the Greens are at risk of
 being forced to live by some other religion’s view of the matter and to
 violate the rules of their own religion.



 Douglas Laycock

 Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law

 University of Virginia Law School

 580 Massie Road

 Charlottesville, VA  22903

  434-243-8546



 *From:* James Oleske [mailto:jole...@lclark.edu jole...@lclark.edu]
 *Sent:* Thursday, June 12, 2014 12:02 AM
 *To:* Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 *Cc:* Daniel J. Greenwood; Douglas Laycock
 *Subject:* Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question



 Without attempting to address the various corporate law issues being
 debated in this thread, I did want to ask a more intuitive question about
 this argument:

 [An exemption for Hobby Lobby] is not an imposition of the Greens'
 religion on the employees. No employee is forced to live by Hobby Lobby's
 religious values; they are entirely free to buy emergency contraception
 with their own money. The only people at risk of being forced to live by
 other people's religious values in this case are the Greens.



 Given that Hobby Lobby is entirely free to pay the opt-out tax with its
 own money, doesn't this argument depend on finding that the relative cost
 to Hobby Lobby of paying the tax is so much higher than the relative cost
 to employees of purchasing the disputed contraception that only the former
 can be deemed to constitute force or an imposition? And, at least with
 respect to the most effective and costly of the contraceptive methods at
 issue (IUDs), is it really so obvious that such a finding would be
 warranted?

 Moreover, regardless of how we might decide the imposition on employees
 question in the first instance, didn't the Supreme Court already address
 the issue explicitly in its pre-Smith jurisprudence when it said that
 granting the Amish employer's request for an exemption in Lee would operate
 to impose the employer's religious faith on the employees?

 Of course, if Smith had never been decided, and if the Court today was
 refining its own constitutional free-exercise exemption jurisprudence
 instead of applying a statute designed to restore the Court's pre-Smith
 jurisprudence, one could certainly argue that the Court should revisit the
 characterization of employer exemptions in Lee. But that's not where we
 would seem to be given the Smith decision and RFRA.

 - Jim



 On Wed, Jun 11, 2014 at 5:49 PM, Douglas Laycock dlayc...@virginia.edu
 wrote:

 Sorry, but now you have shifted to a completely different argument. The
 alleged imposition on employees has nothing to do with corporate law; that
 argument would be exactly the same if Hobby Lobby were a sole
 proprietorship.

 If Hobby Lobby wins, the employees will not receive a particular benefit
 from Hobby Lobby, and that benefit has some economic value to those
 employees who would use it. The relevance of that fact is a genuine issue.

 But it is not an imposition of the Greens' religion on the employees. No
 employee is forced to live by Hobby Lobby's religious values; they are
 entirely free to buy emergency contraception with their own money. The only
 people at risk of being forced to live by other people's religious values
 in this case are the Greens.

 On Wed, 11 Jun 2014 22:27:34 +
  Daniel J. Greenwood daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:
 Corporate law is clear.  Hobby Lobby’s assets do not belong to the Greens
 and they are forbidden by law from acting as if they owned them.  This is
 true in each of their corporate roles

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-12 Thread Steven Jamar
Religion-in-employment cases should not be one-sided or even two sided — there 
are at least three parties with serious interests that come into play–the 
employer’s religious exercise; the employees’ interest in employment, in the 
benefits required by law, in the employee’s (singularly or collectively) free 
exercise or freedom from imposition of the employer’s religion; and the 
interest of the people/the state/the public interest in seeing that secular 
purposes are followed.

If RFRA is applied to protect Hobby Lobby in this case, then the various 
interests of the employees are being ignored and the religious interests of the 
employer are being allowed to trump all of the employee interests and all of 
the public interest that led to the neutral law in the first place.  

I would prefer to see this case decided on no-substantial burden grounds and 
the “complicity” theory utterly rejected as a grounds to refuse to comply with 
a secularly purposed law that has such an attenuated impact on the free 
exercise of anyone, but I agree with those who have noted that this requirement 
could well pass RFRA strict scrutiny even if the threshhold is deemed to have 
been met.

If Hobby Lobby can ignore this law, then the concept of ordered liberty is 
undermined in favor of atomization and religion-based unit vetoes.  That is 
wrong policy and is certainly not compelled as a matter of existing 
constitutional law or RFRA itself.

Steve

-- 
Prof. Steven D. Jamar vox:  202-806-8017
Director of International Programs, Institute for Intellectual Property and 
Social Justice http://iipsj.org
Howard University School of Law   fax:  202-806-8567
http://sdjlaw.org


There is no cosmic law forbidding the triumph of extremism in America.

Thomas McIntyre






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RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-12 Thread Graber, Mark
Doug’s comment about rhetorical flourishes is certainly fair and I am joining 
this conversation late.  But let me push a few people.  There is , of course, a 
libertarian claim that Hobby Lobby can never coerce employees, since no one is 
coerced to work for Hobby Lobby (and an analogous claim that the government can 
never coerce Hobby Lobby, since no one is obligated to employ other people).  I 
take it that general agreement exists that neither of these claims is count (I 
share the consensus).

Doug suggests the following baseline.  We should be more inclined to give 
employers exemptions from generally applicable laws when that means they will 
refrain from bestowing a benefit on their employees than when they exemption 
will entitle them to inflict a harm.

The issue is whether the benefit/harm distinction will hold.  There is, of 
course, a gigantic literature on this and I suspect different members of the 
list will take different positions on what constitutes a benefit and what 
constitutes a harm.  And some of us will suspect that we can probably with a 
little work translate most benefits into harms and most harms into benefits.  
One very standard definition is that a harm makes somebody worse off than they 
were previously but a benefit makes them better off (and for some reasons 
hinted at below, problems exist with this obvious definition).

So now consider the case of X.  X used to work for GM, which provided her with 
a health care plan that included contraceptive coverage.  X then moves to Hobby 
Lobby.  Is there refusal to provide her with a health care plan that includes 
contraceptive coverage a harm (her government mandated employment package is 
worse) or a benefit.  I’m not sure and I am even less sure the harm/benefit 
distinction is that helpful here.

MAG


From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Douglas Laycock
Sent: Thursday, June 12, 2014 12:03 PM
To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

I was responding to Professor Greenwood’s rhetorical flourish, which others 
have also indulged, about how Hobby Lobby is imposing its religious views on 
its employees.  The legal significance of that rhetoric, and of correcting it, 
may be marginal. It at least means that the employees do not have a 
countervailing RFRA claim or a Title VII religious-accommodation claim.

But harm to third parties, or any sort, is relevant to the analysis at the 
compelling-interest stage. There is also a baseline question: Hobby Lobby is 
not affirmatively inflicting harm, but refusing to provide a benefit.

And yes, employers can burden their employee’s religious practice, as lots of 
Title VII cases illustrate.


Douglas Laycock
Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Virginia Law School
580 Massie Road
Charlottesville, VA  22903
 434-243-8546

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edumailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Graber, Mark
Sent: Thursday, June 12, 2014 11:54 AM
To: 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

Doug Laycock writes:.” Any burden on the employees is economic. They are not 
forced to adopt Hobby Lobby’s religious views, live by Hobby Lobby’s religious 
rules, or violate the rules of their own religions. But if Hobby Lobby is 
forced to pay for contraception coverage, the burden is religious. Only Hobby 
Lobby and the Greens are at risk of being forced to live by some other 
religion’s view of the matter and to violate the rules of their own religion. “

Two questions.

First, could Hobby Lobby as a conceptual matter ever impose a religious burden 
on their employees.  After all, no one is forced to work for Hobby Lobby, so 
even if Hobby Lobby insisted that all employees worship a golden calf, the only 
burden would be economic (i.e., the benefits of working for Hobby Lobby as 
opposed to being unemployed or having another job). (this is not a legal 
question concerning whether such a burden is constitutional, but a conceptual 
question about whether such a burden is religious or economic).

Second, assume that Hobby Lobby can as a conceptual matter impose religious 
burdens on their employees, do religious burdens have a different status than 
economic burdens.  Suppose, for example, a Hobby Lobby employee makes a 
compelling factual case that a) their religion both requires sexual activity (a 
reasonable interpretation of Jewish law for married persons) and contraception 
where the marriage partners cannot afford any or another child and b) they 
cannot afford contraception unless it is offered by the employer’s health care 
plan.  Different result?  I admit this is a far-fetched hypothetical, but I 
suspect we can quickly develop more realistic examples if religious burdens are 
conceptually possible.

MAG

RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Daniel J. Greenwood
I think this is not a correct statement of corporate law.



The owners of a closely held corporation are morally responsible for the 
corporation's actions.  After all, the shareholders (or the trustees) are the 
voters for the board that is the corporation's ultimate decisionmaker, and if 
the shareholders are able to act unanimously, they can call an election at any 
time, so that, functionally if not legally, the directors serve at their 
pleasure.  So the Greens are correct to feel responsible for Hobby Lobby's 
actions in their beneficiary of the shareholder trust role.  (If I understand 
the facts correctly, they are also directors of the firm.  In that role, they 
have actual control, within the constraints of fiduciary duty, and certainly 
are morally responsible for their actions.)



However, the main point of corporate status is that the shareholders are not 
legally responsible for the corporation's actions. This is almost certainly why 
the Greens chose to organize the firm as a corporation.  If Hobby Lobby poisons 
its customers or employees or neighbors, or if it attempts to sell products 
that no one is willing to buy, the shareholders have no legal obligation at 
all.  The corporation, to be sure, is liable for its torts and contracts.  But 
if the default is large enough to leave the corporation insolvent, the victims 
are out of luck.  The shareholders have no obligation to pay corporate 
obligations, to fund the corporation adequately, to replenish its capital or to 
return dividends or other payments it may have made to them in the past 
(assuming they were proper when made).



Moreover, the shareholders, as shareholders, have no responsibility at all for 
the actions of directors they elected or employees the directors hired, even if 
the shareholder knew, or should have know, the directors were acting in 
violation of their fiduciary duties.



The only time the shareholders are legally responsible for the corporation's 
actions is if they disregard corporate form -- for example, by seeking to 
control the corporation in their shareholder role, by extracting funds from it 
in violation of corporate law, or by treating corporate assets as their own.



Similarly, directors ordinarily are also immune from legal responsibility for 
their actions, even if those actions wrong another.  The victims must sue the 
corporation, and the corporation alone.  The corporation would have a 
claim-over against the directors if they violated their fiduciary duty, but 
under the business judgment rule the directors are not liable for ordinary 
negligence or for mistakes of judgment.  More importantly, only the directors 
or the shareholders have standing to bring this suit – so it is irrelevant in a 
closely held corporation where the directors and the shareholders have a 
unified interest.



In short, the primary reason to organize as a close corporation is to avoid 
legal responsibility.



Note that the Greens' decision to adopt corporate form was entirely voluntary 
and the directors and shareholders may reverse it at any time.  If they want to 
be legally responsible for the actions of their firm, they need only organize 
as a partnership.



In this case, they appear to be attempting to be a corporation when it is to 
their advantage – that is, they have organized it as a corporation with the 
shares held by a trust in order to establish that they are NOT responsible for 
the corporation’s torts, contracts, taxes or violations of law.  But at the 
same time, they want to ignore the corporation when that is to their advantage, 
claiming that the corporation’s actions to purchase health insurance are their 
actions or made with their money, as if the corporation didn’t exist at all.  
There is something quite wrong about a plaintiff, having taken advantage of the 
extraordinary privilege of irresponsibility, then turning around and saying, in 
effect, “never mind, right now and for this purpose only, I want to be 
responsible – but only so long as it helps me.”



If this were a corporate law case instead of a constitutional law case, that 
two-sidedness would be clear evidence of fraud and a basis to conclude that the 
corporation doesn’t really exist at all – to pierce the corporate veil and 
disregard corporate form.





-Original Message-
From: Douglas Laycock [mailto:dlayc...@virginia.edu]
Sent: Tuesday, June 10, 2014 10:23 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics; Daniel J. Greenwood
Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question



The thoughts below may well be right for a corporation with religiously diverse 
ownership. But Hobby Lobby is closely held, with a voting trust created in part 
to ensure that the business would be run consistently with the family's 
religious commitments.



In public opinion, and often in law, we hold controlling shareholders morally 
and often legally responsible for the wrongdoing of the corporation. It is 
hardly unusual or counter normative

RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Douglas Laycock
In the RFRA context, moral responsibility is what we’re talking about. The 
Green’s religious exercise is burdened because they are being required to 
violate the moral obligations of their faith.

 

I agree about the effects of limited liability in tort and contract. I should 
have been more clear that, as the child porn example suggested, that I was 
thinking of criminal responsibility. An individual cannot insulate himself from 
criminal prosecution by setting up a corporation that he wholly controls and 
then causing the corporation to violate the law. There are also non-criminal 
regulatory examples, such as the liability of controlling shareholders under 
the securities laws. 

 

I am no expert in these areas and can’t cite you a string of cases, although I 
could cite a few. But a closely held corporation is not a get-out-of-jail-free 
card. And it doesn’t really matter whether the government says the controlling 
individuals are liable for what the corporation did, because they controlled 
it, or are liable for what they did individually in their roles as 
shareholders, directors, or officers. Either way you formulate it would be 
equally applicable to the Greens.

 

Douglas Laycock

Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law

University of Virginia Law School

580 Massie Road

Charlottesville, VA  22903

 434-243-8546

 

From: Daniel J. Greenwood [mailto:daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu] 
Sent: Wednesday, June 11, 2014 4:55 PM
To: Douglas Laycock; Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

 

I think this is not a correct statement of corporate law.  

 

The owners of a closely held corporation are morally responsible for the 
corporation's actions.  After all, the shareholders (or the trustees) are the 
voters for the board that is the corporation's ultimate decisionmaker, and if 
the shareholders are able to act unanimously, they can call an election at any 
time, so that, functionally if not legally, the directors serve at their 
pleasure.  So the Greens are correct to feel responsible for Hobby Lobby's 
actions in their beneficiary of the shareholder trust role.  (If I understand 
the facts correctly, they are also directors of the firm.  In that role, they 
have actual control, within the constraints of fiduciary duty, and certainly 
are morally responsible for their actions.) 

 

However, the main point of corporate status is that the shareholders are not 
legally responsible for the corporation's actions. This is almost certainly why 
the Greens chose to organize the firm as a corporation.  If Hobby Lobby poisons 
its customers or employees or neighbors, or if it attempts to sell products 
that no one is willing to buy, the shareholders have no legal obligation at 
all.  The corporation, to be sure, is liable for its torts and contracts.  But 
if the default is large enough to leave the corporation insolvent, the victims 
are out of luck.  The shareholders have no obligation to pay corporate 
obligations, to fund the corporation adequately, to replenish its capital or to 
return dividends or other payments it may have made to them in the past 
(assuming they were proper when made).  

 

Moreover, the shareholders, as shareholders, have no responsibility at all for 
the actions of directors they elected or employees the directors hired, even if 
the shareholder knew, or should have know, the directors were acting in 
violation of their fiduciary duties.  

 

The only time the shareholders are legally responsible for the corporation's 
actions is if they disregard corporate form -- for example, by seeking to 
control the corporation in their shareholder role, by extracting funds from it 
in violation of corporate law, or by treating corporate assets as their own.   

 

Similarly, directors ordinarily are also immune from legal responsibility for 
their actions, even if those actions wrong another.  The victims must sue the 
corporation, and the corporation alone.  The corporation would have a 
claim-over against the directors if they violated their fiduciary duty, but 
under the business judgment rule the directors are not liable for ordinary 
negligence or for mistakes of judgment.  More importantly, only the directors 
or the shareholders have standing to bring this suit – so it is irrelevant in a 
closely held corporation where the directors and the shareholders have a 
unified interest.  

 

In short, the primary reason to organize as a close corporation is to avoid 
legal responsibility.  

 

Note that the Greens' decision to adopt corporate form was entirely voluntary 
and the directors and shareholders may reverse it at any time.  If they want to 
be legally responsible for the actions of their firm, they need only organize 
as a partnership.   

 

In this case, they appear to be attempting to be a corporation when it is to 
their advantage – that is, they have organized it as a corporation with the 
shares held by a trust in order

RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Daniel J. Greenwood
The directors’ fiduciary duty is owed to the corporation, even if it is 
unenforceable (because the shareholders will refuse to enforce it).

And Marty is correct that the directors do decide what the corporation’s 
interests are.  But there are limits – but they may not decide that their 
personal interests are the firm’s interests or that the firm’s interests are 
promoted by violating the law (that second point is somewhat controversial).

If the firm has no religion, it has no religious interests.  So the directors 
are acting in violation of their duty if they cause the corporation to act in 
accord with their own religious views at the expense of its interests (for 
example:  paying hard cash to lawyers in this case).

The First Amendment, I’d have thought, does not protect fiduciaries who seek to 
use  money not their own to pursue the fiduciary’s values and interests in 
violation of their trust.   There may be Freedom of Religion interests in 
stealing, but they are smaller than the social interest in maintaining the 
ordinary rules of civilization and property.

If, as Richard D says, it is in the corporation’s financial interest to follow 
its customer’s views – that is a purely financial interest, not a religious 
one.  Lochner might protect the firm’s interest in profit-maximization 
regardless of the rules of the marketplace laid down by the legislature.  The 
Free Exercise clause surely does not.

From: Marty Lederman [mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com]
Sent: Tuesday, June 10, 2014 11:20 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Cc: Daniel J. Greenwood
Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

Lord knows Doug and I have plenty of differences on this case, but on this one 
we agree, at least roughly speaking.  The directors may have a duty to act in 
the corporations' interests . . . but they are also the ones here who decide 
what those interests are.  There are no stockholders to whom they owe a 
fiduciary duty.  Accordingly, if they freely chose to run the corporation in a 
way that violated their own religious tenets, well, then, they would have 
violated their religious tenets.
The real problem in this respect for the Greens is that they have few if any 
decisions to make here -- the preventive services are required by law if the 
Greens choose for HL to offer an employee insurance plan.
However, as I've been stressing, they do have to decide whether HL will provide 
a health plan at all . . . and that decision might implicate their perceived 
religious obligations.
More to this effect toward the end of my post:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/01/hobby-lobby-part-v-whose-religious.html


On Tue, Jun 10, 2014 at 10:23 PM, Douglas Laycock 
dlayc...@virginia.edumailto:dlayc...@virginia.edu wrote:
The thoughts below may well be right for a corporation with religiously diverse 
ownership. But Hobby Lobby is closely held, with a voting trust created in part 
to ensure that the business would be run consistently with the family's 
religious commitments.

In public opinion, and often in law, we hold controlling shareholders morally 
and often legally responsible for the wrongdoing of the corporation. It is 
hardly unusual or counter normative for the Greens to feel morally responsible 
for what they do with the corporation's money.

If their bookstore affiliate were selling child porn instead of Christian 
books, we would hardly excuse the owners who made all the decisions for the 
corporation on the ground that it wasn't them that did it, it was the 
corporation.

On Wed, 11 Jun 2014 00:53:05 +
 Daniel J. Greenwood 
daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edumailto:daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:
Surely directors have a fiduciary duty as a matter of state law to set aside 
their personal beliefs and act in the interests of the corporation – not their 
own souls – according to their best professional judgment.

It would be strange indeed to discover that the First Amendment nationalizes 
and constitutionalizes basic aspects of corporate law, barring corporate law 
from requiring directors to act as fiduciaries.

It would be stranger still to discover that directors have a right to spend 
money that is not theirs -- wealth that was created by the work of the 
employees mixed with the capital of shareholders, lenders and past employee 
work – for their own purposes rather than the corporations.  That’s theft.  
Does the First Amendment really protect theft?

Directors act for the corporation.  If the corporation cannot exercise 
religion, they have no right to cause it to spend (or not spend) money or 
violate otherwise applicable law in order to practice their personal religions.

On the other hand, if the corporation can exercise religion, they have an 
obligation to cause it to do so whenever it is in its interest to do so – 
which, I suppose, means whenever in their professional judgment doing so would 
protect its soul, or if it has no soul, whenever its earthly interests will be 
furthered

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Scarberry, Mark
 corporate form was entirely voluntary 
and the directors and shareholders may reverse it at any time.  If they want to 
be legally responsible for the actions of their firm, they need only organize 
as a partnership.



In this case, they appear to be attempting to be a corporation when it is to 
their advantage – that is, they have organized it as a corporation with the 
shares held by a trust in order to establish that they are NOT responsible for 
the corporation’s torts, contracts, taxes or violations of law.  But at the 
same time, they want to ignore the corporation when that is to their advantage, 
claiming that the corporation’s actions to purchase health insurance are their 
actions or made with their money, as if the corporation didn’t exist at all.  
There is something quite wrong about a plaintiff, having taken advantage of the 
extraordinary privilege of irresponsibility, then turning around and saying, in 
effect, “never mind, right now and for this purpose only, I want to be 
responsible – but only so long as it helps me.”



If this were a corporate law case instead of a constitutional law case, that 
two-sidedness would be clear evidence of fraud and a basis to conclude that the 
corporation doesn’t really exist at all – to pierce the corporate veil and 
disregard corporate form.





-Original Message-
From: Douglas Laycock [mailto:dlayc...@virginia.edu]
Sent: Tuesday, June 10, 2014 10:23 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics; Daniel J. Greenwood
Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question



The thoughts below may well be right for a corporation with religiously diverse 
ownership. But Hobby Lobby is closely held, with a voting trust created in part 
to ensure that the business would be run consistently with the family's 
religious commitments.



In public opinion, and often in law, we hold controlling shareholders morally 
and often legally responsible for the wrongdoing of the corporation. It is 
hardly unusual or counter normative for the Greens to feel morally responsible 
for what they do with the corporation's money.



If their bookstore affiliate were selling child porn instead of Christian 
books, we would hardly excuse the owners who made all the decisions for the 
corporation on the ground that it wasn't them that did it, it was the 
corporation.



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Anyone can subscribe to the list and read messages that are posted; people can 
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RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Daniel J. Greenwood
Corporate law is clear.  Hobby Lobby’s assets do not belong to the Greens and 
they are forbidden by law from acting as if they owned them.  This is true in 
each of their corporate roles.

So either they are claiming that their own religious exercise is burdened 
because they are not allowed to use property not their own in violation of law 
– in which case, Free Exercise is burdened by the ordinary rules of property, 
theft and fraud.   How is their claim different from a claim that Hobby Lobby 
need not pay its suppliers or label its goods honestly, because they prefer to 
maximize profits in order to use the corporation’s funds for religious purposes?

Or they are claiming that the corporation’s exercise rights are burdened, in 
which case they have transformed the Free Exercise clause into an endorsement 
of Establishment:

Granting Exercise rights to an organization is the same as allowing the 
organization’s leaders to impose the leaders’ religious views on followers.  In 
my view, this is the simplest way to understand what the Greens are demanding 
here -- they seek to establish their religious views in Hobby Lobby, coercively 
requiring all Hobby Lobby employees to set aside personal views in favor of the 
institutional view.

This is not a Free Exercise claim at all.  It’s just a question of corporate 
law – does corporate law grant the executives, directors, shareholders or trust 
beneficiaries the right to establish a corporate religion and impose it, 
through contract and agency, on employees?   Corporate law is clear that 
neither shareholders nor trust beneficiaries have any such right.  It is less 
clear about executives and directors.  I’m no Free Exercise expert, but I don’t 
see how the right to impose your religion on others – whether protected by 
state corporate law or not, and however modified by Federal limitations on the 
rights of employers – could be a Free Exercise right, and or limiting it a 
burden on Free Exercise.


From: Douglas Laycock [mailto:dlayc...@virginia.edu]
Sent: Wednesday, June 11, 2014 5:09 PM
To: Daniel J. Greenwood; 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

In the RFRA context, moral responsibility is what we’re talking about. The 
Green’s religious exercise is burdened because they are being required to 
violate the moral obligations of their faith.

I agree about the effects of limited liability in tort and contract. I should 
have been more clear that, as the child porn example suggested, that I was 
thinking of criminal responsibility. An individual cannot insulate himself from 
criminal prosecution by setting up a corporation that he wholly controls and 
then causing the corporation to violate the law. There are also non-criminal 
regulatory examples, such as the liability of controlling shareholders under 
the securities laws.

I am no expert in these areas and can’t cite you a string of cases, although I 
could cite a few. But a closely held corporation is not a get-out-of-jail-free 
card. And it doesn’t really matter whether the government says the controlling 
individuals are liable for what the corporation did, because they controlled 
it, or are liable for what they did individually in their roles as 
shareholders, directors, or officers. Either way you formulate it would be 
equally applicable to the Greens.

Douglas Laycock
Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Virginia Law School
580 Massie Road
Charlottesville, VA  22903
 434-243-8546

From: Daniel J. Greenwood [mailto:daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu]
Sent: Wednesday, June 11, 2014 4:55 PM
To: Douglas Laycock; Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question


I think this is not a correct statement of corporate law.



The owners of a closely held corporation are morally responsible for the 
corporation's actions.  After all, the shareholders (or the trustees) are the 
voters for the board that is the corporation's ultimate decisionmaker, and if 
the shareholders are able to act unanimously, they can call an election at any 
time, so that, functionally if not legally, the directors serve at their 
pleasure.  So the Greens are correct to feel responsible for Hobby Lobby's 
actions in their beneficiary of the shareholder trust role.  (If I understand 
the facts correctly, they are also directors of the firm.  In that role, they 
have actual control, within the constraints of fiduciary duty, and certainly 
are morally responsible for their actions.)



However, the main point of corporate status is that the shareholders are not 
legally responsible for the corporation's actions. This is almost certainly why 
the Greens chose to organize the firm as a corporation.  If Hobby Lobby poisons 
its customers or employees or neighbors, or if it attempts to sell products 
that no one is willing to buy, the shareholders have no legal obligation at 
all.  The corporation, to be sure, is liable for its torts

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Marc DeGirolami
It’s a quite minor and likely unimportant point in this particular exchange, I 
admit (unfortunately these are my specialty), but I would like to second Mark’s 
remark in the final paragraph of his comment below that animadversive analogy 
to Lochner may perhaps be inapt in this context. I take it that the crucial 
criticism of Lochner has to do with its dependence on unenumerated 
rights—constitutional or otherwise. That ought to be enough to drive a pencil 
through the heart of the analogy, unless one is prepared to resuscitate it with 
lots and lots of argument.

With best wishes,

Marc

From: Scarberry, Mark 
mark.scarbe...@pepperdine.edumailto:mark.scarbe...@pepperdine.edu
Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
religionlaw@lists.ucla.edumailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Date: Thursday, June 12, 2014 at 12:02 AM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics 
religionlaw@lists.ucla.edumailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

Prof. Greenwood overstates the protection corporation law gives to officers and 
directors from civil liability, whether or not they are shareholders. Apart 
from cases in which the law makes them directly responsible for the 
corporation's obligations (e.g., responsible person liability for unpaid 
withholding taxes), officers and directors generally are, as I understand the 
matter, liable for their own tortious actions even if performed as agents of 
the corporation. That is true for shareholders who actively participate in the 
corporation's activities and who use the corporate form in part for the benefit 
of limited liability. The principle of limited liability protects shareholders 
and officers and directors from liability for the acts of other agents of the 
corporation, but not for their own. The major protection is from liability for 
torts committed by other agents (e.g., the truck driver who negligently runs 
over a pedestrian) and from liability on contracts (though often the other 
party will insist on a personal guaranty of performance, as with many loan 
agreements). For a simple discussion of this from a California point of view, 
see http://www.centurycitybar.com/newslettertemplate/April11/article3.htm.

Of course, the issue here is moral responsibility, not legal responsibility. 
But it's still important to see that the use of the corporate form is not the 
get out of jail free card that it is being portrayed as.

Prof. Greenwood's use of terms like theft and fraud is not helpful in 
moving our discussion forward, nor is his invocation of that boogeyman of the 
law -- Lochner. And the business judgment rule has nothing to do with 
obligations to third parties, as opposed to potential liability to the 
corporation itself and to its shareholders

Mark

Mark S. Scarberry
Pepperdine University School of Law

Sent from my iPad

On Jun 11, 2014, at 1:58 PM, Daniel J. Greenwood 
daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edumailto:daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:


I think this is not a correct statement of corporate law.



The owners of a closely held corporation are morally responsible for the 
corporation's actions.  After all, the shareholders (or the trustees) are the 
voters for the board that is the corporation's ultimate decisionmaker, and if 
the shareholders are able to act unanimously, they can call an election at any 
time, so that, functionally if not legally, the directors serve at their 
pleasure.  So the Greens are correct to feel responsible for Hobby Lobby's 
actions in their beneficiary of the shareholder trust role.  (If I understand 
the facts correctly, they are also directors of the firm.  In that role, they 
have actual control, within the constraints of fiduciary duty, and certainly 
are morally responsible for their actions.)



However, the main point of corporate status is that the shareholders are not 
legally responsible for the corporation's actions. This is almost certainly why 
the Greens chose to organize the firm as a corporation.  If Hobby Lobby poisons 
its customers or employees or neighbors, or if it attempts to sell products 
that no one is willing to buy, the shareholders have no legal obligation at 
all.  The corporation, to be sure, is liable for its torts and contracts.  But 
if the default is large enough to leave the corporation insolvent, the victims 
are out of luck.  The shareholders have no obligation to pay corporate 
obligations, to fund the corporation adequately, to replenish its capital or to 
return dividends or other payments it may have made to them in the past 
(assuming they were proper when made).



Moreover, the shareholders, as shareholders, have no responsibility at all for 
the actions of directors they elected or employees the directors hired, even if 
the shareholder knew, or should have know, the directors were acting in 
violation of their fiduciary duties.



The only time the shareholders are legally responsible for the corporation's 
actions is if they disregard

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-11 Thread Douglas Laycock
Sorry, but now you have shifted to a completely different argument. The alleged 
imposition on employees has nothing to do with corporate law; that argument 
would be exactly the same if Hobby Lobby were a sole proprietorship.

If Hobby Lobby wins, the employees will not receive a particular benefit from 
Hobby Lobby, and that benefit has some economic value to those employees who 
would use it. The relevance of that fact is a genuine issue.

But it is not an imposition of the Greens' religion on the employees. No 
employee is forced to live by Hobby Lobby's religious values; they are entirely 
free to buy emergency contraception with their own money. The only people at 
risk of being forced to live by other people's religious values in this case 
are the Greens. 

On Wed, 11 Jun 2014 22:27:34 +
 Daniel J. Greenwood daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:
Corporate law is clear.  Hobby Lobby’s assets do not belong to the Greens and 
they are forbidden by law from acting as if they owned them.  This is true in 
each of their corporate roles.

So either they are claiming that their own religious exercise is burdened 
because they are not allowed to use property not their own in violation of law 
– in which case, Free Exercise is burdened by the ordinary rules of property, 
theft and fraud.   How is their claim different from a claim that Hobby Lobby 
need not pay its suppliers or label its goods honestly, because they prefer to 
maximize profits in order to use the corporation’s funds for religious 
purposes?

Or they are claiming that the corporation’s exercise rights are burdened, in 
which case they have transformed the Free Exercise clause into an endorsement 
of Establishment:

Granting Exercise rights to an organization is the same as allowing the 
organization’s leaders to impose the leaders’ religious views on followers.  
In my view, this is the simplest way to understand what the Greens are 
demanding here -- they seek to establish their religious views in Hobby Lobby, 
coercively requiring all Hobby Lobby employees to set aside personal views in 
favor of the institutional view.

This is not a Free Exercise claim at all.  It’s just a question of corporate 
law – does corporate law grant the executives, directors, shareholders or 
trust beneficiaries the right to establish a corporate religion and impose it, 
through contract and agency, on employees?   Corporate law is clear that 
neither shareholders nor trust beneficiaries have any such right.  It is less 
clear about executives and directors.  I’m no Free Exercise expert, but I 
don’t see how the right to impose your religion on others – whether protected 
by state corporate law or not, and however modified by Federal limitations on 
the rights of employers – could be a Free Exercise right, and or limiting it a 
burden on Free Exercise.


From: Douglas Laycock [mailto:dlayc...@virginia.edu]
Sent: Wednesday, June 11, 2014 5:09 PM
To: Daniel J. Greenwood; 'Law  Religion issues for Law Academics'
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

In the RFRA context, moral responsibility is what we’re talking about. The 
Green’s religious exercise is burdened because they are being required to 
violate the moral obligations of their faith.

I agree about the effects of limited liability in tort and contract. I should 
have been more clear that, as the child porn example suggested, that I was 
thinking of criminal responsibility. An individual cannot insulate himself 
from criminal prosecution by setting up a corporation that he wholly controls 
and then causing the corporation to violate the law. There are also 
non-criminal regulatory examples, such as the liability of controlling 
shareholders under the securities laws.

I am no expert in these areas and can’t cite you a string of cases, although I 
could cite a few. But a closely held corporation is not a get-out-of-jail-free 
card. And it doesn’t really matter whether the government says the controlling 
individuals are liable for what the corporation did, because they controlled 
it, or are liable for what they did individually in their roles as 
shareholders, directors, or officers. Either way you formulate it would be 
equally applicable to the Greens.

Douglas Laycock
Robert E. Scott Distinguished Professor of Law
University of Virginia Law School
580 Massie Road
Charlottesville, VA  22903
 434-243-8546

From: Daniel J. Greenwood [mailto:daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu]
Sent: Wednesday, June 11, 2014 4:55 PM
To: Douglas Laycock; Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question


I think this is not a correct statement of corporate law.



The owners of a closely held corporation are morally responsible for the 
corporation's actions.  After all, the shareholders (or the trustees) are the 
voters for the board that is the corporation's ultimate decisionmaker, and if 
the shareholders are able to act unanimously, they can call an election at any 
time, so

RE: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-10 Thread Daniel J. Greenwood
Surely directors have a fiduciary duty as a matter of state law to set aside 
their personal beliefs and act in the interests of the corporation – not their 
own souls – according to their best professional judgment.

It would be strange indeed to discover that the First Amendment nationalizes 
and constitutionalizes basic aspects of corporate law, barring corporate law 
from requiring directors to act as fiduciaries.

It would be stranger still to discover that directors have a right to spend 
money that is not theirs -- wealth that was created by the work of the 
employees mixed with the capital of shareholders, lenders and past employee 
work – for their own purposes rather than the corporations.  That’s theft.  
Does the First Amendment really protect theft?

Directors act for the corporation.  If the corporation cannot exercise 
religion, they have no right to cause it to spend (or not spend) money or 
violate otherwise applicable law in order to practice their personal religions.

On the other hand, if the corporation can exercise religion, they have an 
obligation to cause it to do so whenever it is in its interest to do so – 
which, I suppose, means whenever in their professional judgment doing so would 
protect its soul, or if it has no soul, whenever its earthly interests will be 
furthered by religious practice.  Moreover, if the First Amendment protects the 
corporation’s religious rights, ordinary corporate law suggests that the 
directors are obliged to cause it to practice whatever religion will result in 
promoting those interests.  This might mean, for example, choosing the religion 
that maximizes profit in some sense, or that promotes the corporation’s product.

Directors have a great deal of freedom to determine what the corporation’s 
interests are.   But as a matter of corporate law, they have no right to 
substitute their own values for its interests.

Again, it seems bizarre to hold that the First Amendment protection of freedom 
of religion protects directors in their fiduciary role:  by assuming the role 
of fiduciary, they have given up their freedom to act according to their 
personal consciences.

Switching the analysis to RFRA helps slightly – at least corporate law does not 
become a part of First Amendment law.  But it is still quite implausible that 
the Congress meant to nationalize a traditionally state law area without 
explicit consideration of the implications.
From: Marty Lederman [mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com]
Sent: Monday, June 09, 2014 5:52 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

I actually think the can corporations exercise religion? question is a red 
herring.  As is the shareholder right-to-sue question.  The gist of the 
claims in these cases are that the individual plaintiffs, the Hanhs and the 
Greens, have had their religious exercise burdened in their capacities as 
company directors.  I think the Court will vote 9-0 on the question of whether 
someone can sue under RFRA in these circumstances.  (I think that someone ought 
to be the Greens and Hahns in their director capacities; but whatever the 
theory, I doubt any Justice will vote to throw out the cases at the 
threshold.)

The real question at stake in the cases is whether actors in the commercial 
sphere (corporate or not) should ever be able to prevail on the merits when 
granting them a religious exemption would mean significantly burdening third 
parties (competitors, customers, or, as here, employees).  The answer to that 
question has been a resounding no for virtually the entire history of 
FEC/RFRA jurisprudence, going back 70 years.  It's that tradition that is at 
stake.
I have a bunch of posts on these and related questions if anyone's interested:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/02/compendium-of-posts-on-hobby-lobby-and.html
On the points discussed immediately above, see, e.g.:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/02/compendium-of-posts-on-hobby-lobby-and.html

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/03/hobby-lobby-part-xiii-shareholder.html

http://www.scotusblog.com/2014/02/symposium-how-to-understand-hobby-lobby/

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/03/hobby-lobby-part-xi-governor-brewers.html

On Mon, Jun 9, 2014 at 1:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin 
hillelle...@gmail.commailto:hillelle...@gmail.com wrote:
Ah. Silly me. Thank you.

On Mon, Jun 9, 2014 at 1:18 PM, Greg Lipper 
lip...@au.orgmailto:lip...@au.org wrote:
The question isn’t only whether Hobby Lobby (and other for-profit corporations 
that sell secular goods/services) are persons, but rather whether they are 
persons that “exercise religion.” If they are not exercising religion, then 
RFRA is not triggered, no matter how much personhood they have.



On Jun 9, 2014, at 12:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin 
hillelle...@gmail.commailto:hillelle...@gmail.com wrote:

 Why doesn't 1 USC sec. 1 resolve the first-stage question in Hobby Lobby 
 (whether RFRA applies to corporations)? [T]he words “person” and “whoever

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-10 Thread Douglas Laycock
The thoughts below may well be right for a corporation with religiously diverse 
ownership. But Hobby Lobby is closely held, with a voting trust created in part 
to ensure that the business would be run consistently with the family's 
religious commitments.

In public opinion, and often in law, we hold controlling shareholders morally 
and often legally responsible for the wrongdoing of the corporation. It is 
hardly unusual or counter normative for the Greens to feel morally responsible 
for what they do with the corporation's money. 

If their bookstore affiliate were selling child porn instead of Christian 
books, we would hardly excuse the owners who made all the decisions for the 
corporation on the ground that it wasn't them that did it, it was the 
corporation.

On Wed, 11 Jun 2014 00:53:05 +
 Daniel J. Greenwood daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:
Surely directors have a fiduciary duty as a matter of state law to set aside 
their personal beliefs and act in the interests of the corporation – not their 
own souls – according to their best professional judgment.

It would be strange indeed to discover that the First Amendment nationalizes 
and constitutionalizes basic aspects of corporate law, barring corporate law 
from requiring directors to act as fiduciaries.

It would be stranger still to discover that directors have a right to spend 
money that is not theirs -- wealth that was created by the work of the 
employees mixed with the capital of shareholders, lenders and past employee 
work – for their own purposes rather than the corporations.  That’s theft.  
Does the First Amendment really protect theft?

Directors act for the corporation.  If the corporation cannot exercise 
religion, they have no right to cause it to spend (or not spend) money or 
violate otherwise applicable law in order to practice their personal religions.

On the other hand, if the corporation can exercise religion, they have an 
obligation to cause it to do so whenever it is in its interest to do so – 
which, I suppose, means whenever in their professional judgment doing so would 
protect its soul, or if it has no soul, whenever its earthly interests will be 
furthered by religious practice.  Moreover, if the First Amendment protects 
the corporation’s religious rights, ordinary corporate law suggests that the 
directors are obliged to cause it to practice whatever religion will result in 
promoting those interests.  This might mean, for example, choosing the 
religion that maximizes profit in some sense, or that promotes the 
corporation’s product.

Directors have a great deal of freedom to determine what the corporation’s 
interests are.   But as a matter of corporate law, they have no right to 
substitute their own values for its interests.

Again, it seems bizarre to hold that the First Amendment protection of freedom 
of religion protects directors in their fiduciary role:  by assuming the role 
of fiduciary, they have given up their freedom to act according to their 
personal consciences.

Switching the analysis to RFRA helps slightly – at least corporate law does 
not become a part of First Amendment law.  But it is still quite implausible 
that the Congress meant to nationalize a traditionally state law area without 
explicit consideration of the implications.
From: Marty Lederman [mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com]
Sent: Monday, June 09, 2014 5:52 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

I actually think the can corporations exercise religion? question is a red 
herring.  As is the shareholder right-to-sue question.  The gist of the 
claims in these cases are that the individual plaintiffs, the Hanhs and the 
Greens, have had their religious exercise burdened in their capacities as 
company directors.  I think the Court will vote 9-0 on the question of whether 
someone can sue under RFRA in these circumstances.  (I think that someone 
ought to be the Greens and Hahns in their director capacities; but whatever 
the theory, I doubt any Justice will vote to throw out the cases at the 
threshold.)

The real question at stake in the cases is whether actors in the commercial 
sphere (corporate or not) should ever be able to prevail on the merits when 
granting them a religious exemption would mean significantly burdening third 
parties (competitors, customers, or, as here, employees).  The answer to that 
question has been a resounding no for virtually the entire history of 
FEC/RFRA jurisprudence, going back 70 years.  It's that tradition that is at 
stake.
I have a bunch of posts on these and related questions if anyone's interested:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/02/compendium-of-posts-on-hobby-lobby-and.html
On the points discussed immediately above, see, e.g.:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/02/compendium-of-posts-on-hobby-lobby-and.html

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/03/hobby-lobby-part-xiii-shareholder.html

http://www.scotusblog.com/2014/02/symposium-how

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-10 Thread Marty Lederman
Lord knows Doug and I have plenty of differences on this case, but on this
one we agree, at least roughly speaking.  The directors may have a duty to
act in the corporations' interests . . . but they are also the ones here
who decide what those interests are.  There are no stockholders to whom
they owe a fiduciary duty.  Accordingly, if they freely chose to run the
corporation in a way that violated their own religious tenets, well, then,
they would have violated their religious tenets.

The real problem in this respect for the Greens is that they have few if
any decisions to make here -- the preventive services are required *by law*
if the Greens choose for HL to offer an employee insurance plan.

However, as I've been stressing, they *do* have to decide whether HL will
provide a health plan at all . . . and *that *decision might implicate
their perceived religious obligations.

More to this effect toward the end of my post:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/01/hobby-lobby-part-v-whose-religious.html




On Tue, Jun 10, 2014 at 10:23 PM, Douglas Laycock dlayc...@virginia.edu
wrote:

 The thoughts below may well be right for a corporation with religiously
 diverse ownership. But Hobby Lobby is closely held, with a voting trust
 created in part to ensure that the business would be run consistently with
 the family's religious commitments.

 In public opinion, and often in law, we hold controlling shareholders
 morally and often legally responsible for the wrongdoing of the
 corporation. It is hardly unusual or counter normative for the Greens to
 feel morally responsible for what they do with the corporation's money.

 If their bookstore affiliate were selling child porn instead of Christian
 books, we would hardly excuse the owners who made all the decisions for the
 corporation on the ground that it wasn't them that did it, it was the
 corporation.

 On Wed, 11 Jun 2014 00:53:05 +
  Daniel J. Greenwood daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:
 Surely directors have a fiduciary duty as a matter of state law to set
 aside their personal beliefs and act in the interests of the corporation –
 not their own souls – according to their best professional judgment.
 
 It would be strange indeed to discover that the First Amendment
 nationalizes and constitutionalizes basic aspects of corporate law, barring
 corporate law from requiring directors to act as fiduciaries.
 
 It would be stranger still to discover that directors have a right to
 spend money that is not theirs -- wealth that was created by the work of
 the employees mixed with the capital of shareholders, lenders and past
 employee work – for their own purposes rather than the corporations.
  That’s theft.  Does the First Amendment really protect theft?
 
 Directors act for the corporation.  If the corporation cannot exercise
 religion, they have no right to cause it to spend (or not spend) money or
 violate otherwise applicable law in order to practice their personal
 religions.
 
 On the other hand, if the corporation can exercise religion, they have an
 obligation to cause it to do so whenever it is in its interest to do so –
 which, I suppose, means whenever in their professional judgment doing so
 would protect its soul, or if it has no soul, whenever its earthly
 interests will be furthered by religious practice.  Moreover, if the First
 Amendment protects the corporation’s religious rights, ordinary corporate
 law suggests that the directors are obliged to cause it to practice
 whatever religion will result in promoting those interests.  This might
 mean, for example, choosing the religion that maximizes profit in some
 sense, or that promotes the corporation’s product.
 
 Directors have a great deal of freedom to determine what the
 corporation’s interests are.   But as a matter of corporate law, they have
 no right to substitute their own values for its interests.
 
 Again, it seems bizarre to hold that the First Amendment protection of
 freedom of religion protects directors in their fiduciary role:  by
 assuming the role of fiduciary, they have given up their freedom to act
 according to their personal consciences.
 
 Switching the analysis to RFRA helps slightly – at least corporate law
 does not become a part of First Amendment law.  But it is still quite
 implausible that the Congress meant to nationalize a traditionally state
 law area without explicit consideration of the implications.
 From: Marty Lederman [mailto:lederman.ma...@gmail.com]
 Sent: Monday, June 09, 2014 5:52 PM
 To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
 Subject: Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question
 
 I actually think the can corporations exercise religion? question is a
 red herring.  As is the shareholder right-to-sue question.  The gist of
 the claims in these cases are that the individual plaintiffs, the Hanhs and
 the Greens, have had their religious exercise burdened in their capacities
 as company directors.  I think the Court will vote 9-0 on the question of
 whether

Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-10 Thread Richard Dougherty
I would add that it is likely that Hobby Lobby is acting in the interests
of the corporation in this instance, including the fiduciary interest;
scores of people shop at Hobby Lobby because they like what it stands for.
 Take that away, or make it seem as if they have abandoned it, and it can't
help Hobby Lobby's marketing (see the Boy Scouts).

Richard Dougherty
University of Dallas


On Tue, Jun 10, 2014 at 9:23 PM, Douglas Laycock dlayc...@virginia.edu
wrote:

 The thoughts below may well be right for a corporation with religiously
 diverse ownership. But Hobby Lobby is closely held, with a voting trust
 created in part to ensure that the business would be run consistently with
 the family's religious commitments.

 In public opinion, and often in law, we hold controlling shareholders
 morally and often legally responsible for the wrongdoing of the
 corporation. It is hardly unusual or counter normative for the Greens to
 feel morally responsible for what they do with the corporation's money.

 If their bookstore affiliate were selling child porn instead of Christian
 books, we would hardly excuse the owners who made all the decisions for the
 corporation on the ground that it wasn't them that did it, it was the
 corporation.

 On Wed, 11 Jun 2014 00:53:05 +
  Daniel J. Greenwood daniel.greenw...@hofstra.edu wrote:
 Surely directors have a fiduciary duty as a matter of state law to set
 aside their personal beliefs and act in the interests of the corporation –
 not their own souls – according to their best professional judgment.
 
 It would be strange indeed to discover that the First Amendment
 nationalizes and constitutionalizes basic aspects of corporate law, barring
 corporate law from requiring directors to act as fiduciaries.
 
 It would be stranger still to discover that directors have a right to
 spend money that is not theirs -- wealth that was created by the work of
 the employees mixed with the capital of shareholders, lenders and past
 employee work – for their own purposes rather than the corporations.
  That’s theft.  Does the First Amendment really protect theft?
 
 Directors act for the corporation.  If the corporation cannot exercise
 religion, they have no right to cause it to spend (or not spend) money or
 violate otherwise applicable law in order to practice their personal
 religions.
 
 On the other hand, if the corporation can exercise religion, they have an
 obligation to cause it to do so whenever it is in its interest to do so –
 which, I suppose, means whenever in their professional judgment doing so
 would protect its soul, or if it has no soul, whenever its earthly
 interests will be furthered by religious practice.  Moreover, if the First
 Amendment protects the corporation’s religious rights, ordinary corporate
 law suggests that the directors are obliged to cause it to practice
 whatever religion will result in promoting those interests.  This might
 mean, for example, choosing the religion that maximizes profit in some
 sense, or that promotes the corporation’s product.
 
 Directors have a great deal of freedom to determine what the
 corporation’s interests are.   But as a matter of corporate law, they have
 no right to substitute their own values for its interests.
 
 Again, it seems bizarre to hold that the First Amendment protection of
 freedom of religion protects directors in their fiduciary role:  by
 assuming the role of fiduciary, they have given up their freedom to act
 according to their personal consciences.
 
 Switching the analysis to RFRA helps slightly – at least corporate law
 does not become a part of First Amendment law.  But it is still quite
 implausible that the Congress meant to nationalize a traditionally state
 law area without explicit consideration of the implications.


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Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-09 Thread Greg Lipper
The question isn’t only whether Hobby Lobby (and other for-profit corporations 
that sell secular goods/services) are persons, but rather whether they are 
persons that “exercise religion.” If they are not exercising religion, then 
RFRA is not triggered, no matter how much personhood they have.



On Jun 9, 2014, at 12:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin hillelle...@gmail.com wrote:

 Why doesn't 1 USC sec. 1 resolve the first-stage question in Hobby Lobby 
 (whether RFRA applies to corporations)? [T]he words “person” and “whoever” 
 include corporations, companies, associations, firms, partnerships, 
 societies, and joint stock companies, as well as individuals.
 
 Are the two sides really just arguing about whether [RFRA's] context 
 indicates otherwise  (1 USC 1) sufficiently to overcome this strong 
 definitional statement?
 
 If so, much as I'd personally like for Hobby Lobby to lose this case, I'd 
 think that the on this question at least, the plaintiffs have to win. After 
 all, we have a strong statutory definition, with at best equivocal contextual 
 evidence to the contrary.
 
 What am I missing? Are there cases dealing with the context language in 1 
 USC 1?
 ___
 To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
 To subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see 
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Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-09 Thread Hillel Y. Levin
Ah. Silly me. Thank you.


On Mon, Jun 9, 2014 at 1:18 PM, Greg Lipper lip...@au.org wrote:

 The question isn’t only whether Hobby Lobby (and other for-profit
 corporations that sell secular goods/services) are persons, but rather
 whether they are persons that “exercise religion.” If they are not
 exercising religion, then RFRA is not triggered, no matter how much
 personhood they have.



 On Jun 9, 2014, at 12:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin hillelle...@gmail.com
 wrote:

  Why doesn't 1 USC sec. 1 resolve the first-stage question in Hobby Lobby
 (whether RFRA applies to corporations)? [T]he words “person” and “whoever”
 include corporations, companies, associations, firms, partnerships,
 societies, and joint stock companies, as well as individuals.
 
  Are the two sides really just arguing about whether [RFRA's] context
 indicates otherwise  (1 USC 1) sufficiently to overcome this strong
 definitional statement?
 
  If so, much as I'd personally like for Hobby Lobby to lose this case,
 I'd think that the on this question at least, the plaintiffs have to win.
 After all, we have a strong statutory definition, with at best equivocal
 contextual evidence to the contrary.
 
  What am I missing? Are there cases dealing with the context language
 in 1 USC 1?
  ___
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-- 
Hillel Y. Levin
Associate Professor
University of Georgia
School of Law
120 Herty Dr.
Athens, GA 30602
(678) 641-7452
hle...@uga.edu
hillelle...@gmail.com
SSRN Author Page:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=466645
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Re: Simple Hobby Lobby question

2014-06-09 Thread Marty Lederman
I actually think the can corporations exercise religion? question is a
red herring.  As is the shareholder right-to-sue question.  The gist of
the claims in these cases are that the individual plaintiffs, the Hanhs and
the Greens, have had their religious exercise burdened in *their capacities
as company directors*.  I think the Court will vote 9-0 on the question of
whether *someone* can sue under RFRA in these circumstances.  (I think that
someone ought to be the Greens and Hahns in their director capacities;
but whatever the theory, I doubt any Justice will vote to throw out the
cases at the threshold.)

The real question at stake in the cases is whether actors in the commercial
sphere (corporate or not) should ever be able to prevail on the merits when
granting them a religious exemption would mean significantly burdening
third parties (competitors, customers, or, as here, employees).  The answer
to *that *question has been a resounding no for virtually the entire
history of FEC/RFRA jurisprudence, going back 70 years.  It's that
tradition that is at stake.

I have a bunch of posts on these and related questions if anyone's
interested:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/02/compendium-of-posts-on-hobby-lobby-and.html

On the points discussed immediately above, see, e.g.:

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/02/compendium-of-posts-on-hobby-lobby-and.html

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/03/hobby-lobby-part-xiii-shareholder.html

http://www.scotusblog.com/2014/02/symposium-how-to-understand-hobby-lobby/

http://balkin.blogspot.com/2014/03/hobby-lobby-part-xi-governor-brewers.html



On Mon, Jun 9, 2014 at 1:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin hillelle...@gmail.com
wrote:

 Ah. Silly me. Thank you.


 On Mon, Jun 9, 2014 at 1:18 PM, Greg Lipper lip...@au.org wrote:

 The question isn’t only whether Hobby Lobby (and other for-profit
 corporations that sell secular goods/services) are persons, but rather
 whether they are persons that “exercise religion.” If they are not
 exercising religion, then RFRA is not triggered, no matter how much
 personhood they have.



 On Jun 9, 2014, at 12:39 PM, Hillel Y. Levin hillelle...@gmail.com
 wrote:

  Why doesn't 1 USC sec. 1 resolve the first-stage question in Hobby
 Lobby (whether RFRA applies to corporations)? [T]he words “person” and
 “whoever” include corporations, companies, associations, firms,
 partnerships, societies, and joint stock companies, as well as individuals.
 
  Are the two sides really just arguing about whether [RFRA's] context
 indicates otherwise  (1 USC 1) sufficiently to overcome this strong
 definitional statement?
 
  If so, much as I'd personally like for Hobby Lobby to lose this case,
 I'd think that the on this question at least, the plaintiffs have to win.
 After all, we have a strong statutory definition, with at best equivocal
 contextual evidence to the contrary.
 
  What am I missing? Are there cases dealing with the context language
 in 1 USC 1?
  ___
  To post, send message to Religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
  To subscribe, unsubscribe, change options, or get password, see
 http://lists.ucla.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/listinfo/religionlaw
 
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 private.  Anyone can subscribe to the list and read messages that are
 posted; people can read the Web archives; and list members can (rightly or
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 ___
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 posted; people can read the Web archives; and list members can (rightly or
 wrongly) forward the messages to others.




 --
 Hillel Y. Levin
 Associate Professor
 University of Georgia
 School of Law
 120 Herty Dr.
 Athens, GA 30602
 (678) 641-7452
 hle...@uga.edu
 hillelle...@gmail.com
 SSRN Author Page:
 http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=466645

 ___
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