Ben,

My discussion of "meaning" was supposed to clarify that. The final
definition is the broadest I currently endorse, and it admits
meaningful uncomputable facts about numbers. It does not appear to get
into the realm of set theory, though.

--Abram

On Tue, Oct 21, 2008 at 12:07 PM, Ben Goertzel <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
>>
>>
>> But, worse, there are mathematically well-defined entities that are
>> not even enumerable or co-enumerable, and in no sense seem computable.
>> Of course, any axiomatic theory of these objects *is* enumerable and
>> therefore intuitively computable (but technically only computably
>> enumerable). Schmidhuber's super-omegas are one example.
>
> My contention is that the first use of the word "are" in the first sentence
> of
> the above is deceptive.
>
> The whole problem with the question of whether there "are" uncomputable
> entities is the ambiguity of the natural language term "is / are", IMO ...
>
> If by
>
> "A exists"
>
> you  mean communicable-existence, i.e.
>
> "It is possible to communicate A using a language composed of discrete
> symbols, in a finite time"
>
> then uncomputable numbers do not exist
>
> If by
>
> "A exists"
>
> you mean
>
> "I can take some other formal property F(X) that applies to
> communicatively-existent things X, and apply it to A"
>
> then this will often be true ... depending on the property F ...
>
> My question to you is: how do you interpret "are" in your statement that
> uncomputable entities "are"?
>
> ben
>
> ________________________________
> agi | Archives | Modify Your Subscription


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