--- Jacob W Braestrup <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
"My point with the example is this: when there are so
many things in life that are blatantly "unfairly" (if
you believe in equality) distributed among us, [1]why
this preoccupation with wealth / income -
[2]especially when it is conceeded that effeorts to
redistribute existing income / wealth will inevitably
reduce future income / wealth."

1: My guess: Because wealth & income are relatively
easy to measure objectively, as opposed to "mate
satisfaction."  So it is an easy proxy.  It seems to
be a fairly good one, too, since money is a numeraire
good.

2: Does the logic/math of the 2nd Fund. Welfare Thm.
imply that lump-sum redistribution, so that a more
"favorable" market outcome obtains, necessarily lowers
output?  Optimization is still a calculus problem
after all.

-jsh


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