About this debate on proof, you can't prove it's audible OR inauible, which is all I said. You can do a proper (blind) test, get it right X out of Y times, and that provides statistical, probabalistic evidence for one or the other. But it obviously can never prove it either way - even if you get it right 1000/1000 times, there's a 2^-1000 that could happen even if there's no difference and you were guessing.
Furthermore, I think you're incorrect to think there's a difference in formal logic between "positive" and "negative" statements. How do you decide which is which? For example, is "p implies q" a positive statement? If so, how about "not q implies not p"? Sounds pretty negative... but the two statements are identical. Anyway, this is pretty far off the subject. Does anyone now think they can hear the difference, and if so have they tried a blind test to actually check? -- opaqueice ------------------------------------------------------------------------ opaqueice's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=4234 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=22936 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list [email protected] http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
