DeVerm;352261 Wrote: > > No, that "disagreed part" you mention was never tested before. The > subjects still can't hear the HFS part even when it's played together > with the LFS part... but --their brains react to it--. The scope of > previous tests never included that possibility and thus did not monitor > the brains of the subjects. When working from two different scopes like > that, you can't say that there is disagreement as the first test didn't > include this part. You can say that the first test missed it.
That's just... wrong. You're directly contradicting the authors of this paper: > > -Explanation of the discrepancy between the present and previous > studies- > > The fact that we used an entire piece of natural music lasting 200 s as > sound stimuli instead of short fragments of sounds might explain the > discrepancy between our findings and those of previous studies carried > out around 1980 to determine the format for digital audio CDs (e.g., > Muraoka et al. 1978; Plenge et al. 1979), which concluded that the > presence of sounds containing a frequency range above 15 kHz was not > recognized as making a difference in sound quality. Those studies (probably among many others) showed that people cannot distinguish between sounds including high frequencies and sounds not including them. That *directly contradicts* the findings of this study, and the method (on the question part) is essentially identical AFAIK. The only significant difference mentioned is the length of the sample. Which brings up another problem with this. If the author's proposed explanation is correct (that the effects only manifest themselves over time periods of 10s of seconds), it's perfectly possible that -any- presence of HFS (regardless of whether it's harmonically related to the music) could activate these beneficial effects. In other words... *Hypothesis*: people feel strange in environments (such as the damped soundbooths this experiment probably used) with zero HFS present. Adding HFS to music in an otherwise completely silent environment "reassures" the brain that all is well, whereas playing only LFS leaves this strange feeling. In a normal living-room type listening environment with ambient HFS no such effect would take place, because the background would "reassure" the brain anyway. If that hypothesis is correct - and as far as I know it's consistent with their data, even accepted at face value - these findings would have no relevance whatsoever for home audio. > > Nack. Why is this bizarre? Fact: neither people's brains nor conscious minds react to HFS alone. Claimed fact: people's brains and responses are different when exposed to HFS+LFS versus LFS alone. That's very weird. It's the kind of thing that is out there enough that it could have many potential explanations (for example the one I gave above). Once you allow for possibilities like that, everything should be questioned - for example, I repeat, how do you know that the measuring gear you're using doesn't exhibit this kind of non-linear response too? -- opaqueice ------------------------------------------------------------------------ opaqueice's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=4234 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=54077 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list [email protected] http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
