We have in Nm 17:6 the verbal form HAMIT.EM, you killed. If we were to write this word in today Israeli script (the pointless one, hasar haniqud), must we include a YUD between M and T?
I mean: should the written word take the form of the last word in 1Sa 2:25 (of course, without points and without the prefixed lamed)? Kind regards from Pere Porta (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain) > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > -- Pere Porta _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
