Barry,
Thank you for answering me.
I am trying to understand why they move the "le" in Malachi 2:4 and in Isaiah
49:6.
Malachi 2:4 usually says "I have sent this commandment to you (le) that (for)
My covenant to be with Levi" instead of "I have sent this commandment to you
for (le) the being of My covenant with Levi". Does it literally say "for the
being of My covenant" of "for My covenant to be"? Is common to move the "le" or
is it just done in this kind of quote?
Isaiah 49:6 is translated as "I have given you for a light of nations to be My
salvation unto the ends of the earth" or "I have given you for a light of
nations for My salvation to be unto the ends of the earth." Should it literally
be translated "for the being of My salvation"? Are infinitives used as
constructs or whatever they grammatically call this?
Kenneth Greifer
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