Dear Chavoux,
[This is my first post here, so I hope that I am sending this correctly.]

Although I have not seen Ps. 1:1 translated that way before, it would seem to 
fit well with Hebrew grammar. We have a problem with BH that the basic way to 
express past tense is with the vayyiqtol, which must be clause-initial, and the 
method for negating a proposition is with a negative particle that must come 
before the verb. Thus you cannot negate a vayyiqtol statement--and keep the 
vayyiqtol structure in tact.
If we had three positive statements in v.1 instead of the three negative 
statements, we would probably know more certainly if your suggestion is 
correct, since it would likely read Rel Pronoun-Qatal, Vayyiqtol, 
Vayyiqtol, etc. Since they are negatives, however, we are left with the less 
distinct Neg-Qatal, Neg-Qatal, etc.

I appreciate your suggestion.

Blessings,
Todd Borger
________________________________________
From: [email protected] [[email protected]] 
on behalf of Chavoux Luyt [[email protected]]
Sent: Friday, March 09, 2012 12:26 PM
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psa 1,1f

Hi Karl

> From: K Randolph <[email protected]>
> The whole psalm is present tense, imperfective aspect. What we deal with
> here is different moods.
>
> In the first verse, there are three declarative phrases that defines a
> blessed person. Hence the Qatal in all three phrases.
>
> The second verse the Yiqtol indicates the desire, or subjunctive use of the
> verb.
<snip>
> The Qatal and Yiqtol conjugations reference neither tense (past, present,
> future) nor aspect (completed, uncompleted action), and this psalm gives
> examples that this is the case.
Why is this so? From both an aspect and tense perspective the Psalm
would still make sense.
"Blessed is the man who did not walk in the counsel of the wicked and
in the way of the sinners he did not stand and in the gathering of the
scoffers he did not sit. But his delight (is) in the law of the LORD
and day and night he will meditate on His law. He will be like a tree
planted by a stream of water..."

I can simply not see why this cannot be a valid translation of these verses.

Shalom
Chavoux Luyt
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