Nir,
I understand both sides of the argument concerning the use of the
pronoun as either a hangover from an ancient word that happened to sound
like the pronoun but meaning "is" or a redundant (in English) pronoun.
But I am a little confused how you deal with the passages where???? is
used with another pronounlike Isaiah 7:28:
??????-????? ????????????
Do you understand this as "You are God Himself"?
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
On 11/14/2012 7:33 AM, Nir cohen - Prof. Mat. wrote:
isaac,
ET in hebrew is a preposition (similar to MIN, EL, (AL, LIFNEY etc)
and a marker for direct object, and as such
it is not specified for gender or number. it is the same ET for
everybody.
now, AT, ATAH, HEM etc is a personal pronoun*, and is specified for
both gender and number.
i think you confuse the two. now, i admit that it is logical to see
the pronoun as linguistically derived from the preposition
(precisely bygender and number speciation). thiere is room for much
speculation here.
probably, H* was used as the primordial semitic 2nd and 3rd pronoun,
from which we still have in hebrew HU, HI, HEM, HEN.
the question of ATAH, AT, ATEM, ATEN is less understood. one would
like to conjecture a dative origin (thus, ATAH is ET-H*)
for them, which became nominal later; but then there is the problem of
the truly hebrew dative forms (OTKhA, OTAKhetc).
here, the situation is less clear.
**
*> isaac: 1. Food for thought: Does not the translation implicitly see
this HU as a verb?
the translation is in english, and the two languages have a different
vision of the role of an auxiliary verb. in hebrew HU) is not
considered a verb.one argument for
this is that it is not tense specified (past, present, future), while
the english TO BE is tense specified.
> 2. If the "first person" may speak for himself as a "third person",
> can not the first ?? AT or ET of Gen. 14:9 stand for ??? HU or ?? ZEH,
> or even ?? HEM, as in 1Sam. 17:34, and Neh. 9:34?
*i dont see the logic here. distorting an argument does not render it
incorrect.
*
nir cohen
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