Hi Karl, Again, as I said in an earlier post, no one ever sat down and determined that in the Hebrew language, a wc+imperfect would equal past tense. I would, however, argue that, with usage, the past tense became its primary function.
If I were to give my Hebrew students a test in which I simply listed 100 wc+imperfects, chosen randomly fronm the Hebrew Bible, and asked the students to translate them into English, and give them a past, present, or future time reference, if a student translated all of them using the past tense, then according to Rolf's statistics given in an earlier post, the student would score 93.1 on the exam. I think the student would be pretty happy with that. Blessings, Jerry Jerry Shepherd Taylor Seminary Edmonton, Alberta [email protected] On Thu, Dec 13, 2012 at 11:26 AM, K Randolph <[email protected]> wrote: > Frank: > > On Thu, Dec 13, 2012 at 9:16 AM, Dr. Frank Matheus <[email protected]>wrote: > >> Dear list, **** >> >> ** ** >> >> if we perceived a text comprising only of one word, e.g. וַיֹּ֙אמֶר , to >> which time sphere would we sort the proposition, and why would we do so? >> > > We would not know because this is not a grammaticalization for any time > sphere. It could be present, it could be future, without further context, > there’s no way to tell. > >> **** >> >> ** ** >> >> Frank**** >> >> >> Karl W. Randolph. > > > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > > --
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