Vance: On Mon, Dec 17, 2012 at 5:47 AM, Donald Vance <[email protected]> wrote:
> Karl's non-answer aside, > My non-answer? Are not leading questions a more effective way to communicate and debate than simple statements? > we would, of course, assign a past time sphere, to use the question's > terminology, and we would do so because the wayyiqtol pattern preserves or > retains an old perfective form. The introduction to Leviticus makes this > clear. > What old perfective form? Where does that come from? If it’s from the mythological proto-Semitic, why should we accept it as evidence? Or is the Wayyiqtol introduction a sign that the following is a narrative? Did you look at the introductions to all the narrative books? Didn’t you notice that except for Genesis and 1 Chronicles, both which start at the very beginning, all but a couple of the narratives, including a couple of the prophets who told their stories as narratives (Jonah, Ezekiel), start with Wayyiqtols? So rather than being a sign of the perfective, wouldn’t this be merely a sign of narrative, continuation? > > Sent from my iPad > Donald R. Vance > [email protected] > [email protected] > Going back to the question that started this thread, don’t the number of cases where the Wayyiqtol is found in non-past contexts make it impossible to say whether or not a single Wayyiqtol standing alone refers to a past event apart from a context that indicates past tense? Karl W. Randolph. > > On Dec 13, 2012, at 11:16 AM, "Dr. Frank Matheus" <[email protected]> wrote: > > Dear list, **** > > ** ** > > if we perceived a text comprising only of one word, e.g. וַיֹּ֙אמֶר , to > which time sphere would we sort the proposition, and why would we do so? * > *** > > ** ** > > Frank > >
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