Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."
I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance." Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel. I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation is wrong. Any opinions? Kenneth Greifer http://www.messianicmistakes.com/ _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
