Karl,
 
The usual translation is "when the Most High gave nations inheritances, when He 
divided sons of mankind..."
 
What if it says, "when the highest of nations (Israel) gave inheritances, when 
it (he) divided sons of a man, he (it) will set up (will be caused to set up) 
(hophal?) borders of peoples (the tribes)  for the number of the sons of 
Israel, because the L-rd divided His (his) people, Jacob, the portion of His 
inheritance"?

G-d said Israel would be the highest of nations in Deut. 26:19 and 28:1.
 
Kenneth Greifer
--- On Wed, 12/26/12, K Randolph <[email protected]> wrote:


From: K Randolph <[email protected]>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Deuteronomy 32:8-9
To: "kenneth greifer" <[email protected]>
Cc: [email protected]
Date: Wednesday, December 26, 2012, 5:06 PM


Kenneth:


Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the final 
phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then you’d 
have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel is 
referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?


Karl W. Randolph.


On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer 
<[email protected]> wrote:

Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He set the 
borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the portion of 
the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man (not 
mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, 
because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance."

Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples 
would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set the 
borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel.

I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual translation 
is wrong. Any opinions?

Kenneth Greifer
http://www.messianicmistakes.com/
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