Kenneth: Why shouldn’t we consider that the verse divisions are wrong, that the final phrase of verse 8 really belongs as the first phrase of verse 9? Then you’d have verse 8 referring to the nations (Is there any case where Israel is referred to as nations (plural)?) and verse 9 to Israel?
Karl W. Randolph. On Wed, Dec 26, 2012 at 1:13 PM, kenneth greifer < [email protected]> wrote: > Deut.32:8-9 says something like "...when He divided the sons of man, He > set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of Israel, because the > portion of the L-rd is His people, Jacob, the portion of His inheritance." > > I was thinking that maybe it says "...when He divided the sons of a man > (not mankind), He set the borders of peoples to the number of the sons of > Israel, because the L-rd divided His people, Jacob, the portion of His > inheritance." > > Maybe Jacob's sons were peoples like Gen. 28:3 says an assembly of peoples > would come from him. Maybe G-d divided the sons of a man (Jacob) and set > the borders for the peoples who came from him, the tribes of Israel. > > I have read that adam can mean man or mankind, so maybe the usual > translation is wrong. Any opinions? > > Kenneth Greifer > http://www.messianicmistakes.com/ > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew >
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