can't we just accept the different names as expressing the principle of poetic variation? of course, i accept that the situation is different in other places, e.g. in Ex 15. but maybe Job went through a different editing process than Ex 15.
וְאֶל-מִי, תְּדַמְּיוּן אֵל; וּמַה-דְּמוּת, תַּעַרְכוּ לוֹ. isaiah 40:18 לָכֵן, כֹּה אָמַר אֲדֹנָי יְהוִה: יַעַן תִּתְּךָ אֶת-לְבָבְךָ, כְּלֵב אֱלֹהִים. ezek 28:6 nir cohen >>> De: [email protected] Is there a pattern where the various speakers (YHWH, Job, Eliphaz, Bildad, Zophar and Elihu) each use different terms when referring to God? Can we correlate and map the usages? Ted Brownstein >>> [email protected] writes: In Sefer 'Iyyob, why do we see different discriptive pronouns used for YHWH? The terms אלהים, אלוה and אל, exist, depending on the chapter and who is speaking, to describe YHWH. The only consistency that exists is when either the narrorator or YHWH is speaking, and in the instances the term אלהים is used, but elsewhere, the terms vary. >>> Assuming that the events in this narrative actually existed, could this be due to the different Semitic dialects / tongues that the original participants spoke and the discriptive pronouns they used to reference the Deity? Could this be the difference of people who speak Hebrew, Arabic and Syriac having a conversation about YHWH in modern times? Regards, Yohanan bin-Dawidh _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
