Karl and Kevin:

I suggest that you ponder the meaning of the niphal of this verb in Amos3:3.

There are many meanings for the root (DH.  But based on the words (aD = until, 
eternity; (oWD - still, again and (aeD = evidence (as well as many others); 

I suggest to you that one of the meanings of this root is "to endure."

For this reason, the root also means "to set a time / meeting (a time of 
enduring in a certain place)"
Note also the related roots : 

(DD (polel) meaning "to help endure, support, sustain (Ps146:9;147:6) and in 
the 
hitpael: to endure, remain standing (Ps20:9). 


S(D meaning "to sustain, maintain (Is9:6)(Pr20:28); to support 
(Ps18:36;20:3;41:4;94:18;119:117); to refresh oneself (KgI13:7)   


and others.


In the case of Exod21:8, I agree with Karl that it is the KTiV that is correct 
and not the Qere.  I believe the correct translation is as follows:

"If she is bad / unpleasant in the sight of her lord, such that he cannot 
endure 
/ tolerate her then he must let her go........."

In Amos3:3 the correct translation is : "Can two walk together, without the 
possibility of them being able to tolerate / endure together?"


David Kolinsky

Monterey, CA



________________________________
From: K Randolph <[email protected]>
To: Kevin W. Woodruff <[email protected]>
Cc: B-Hebrew <[email protected]>
Sent: Wed, May 1, 2013 1:06:40 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8


Dear Kevin:



On Wed, May 1, 2013 at 12:08 PM, Kevin W. Woodruff <[email protected]> wrote:


>From: Kevin W. Woodruff <[email protected]>
>Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
>To: "K Randolph" <[email protected]>
>Date: Wednesday, May 1, 2013, 3:00 PM
>
>
>
>Karl:
>> 
>>We have two issues here:
>> 
>>One is the meaning of ya'ad which in the Qal means "to designate or assign", 
>>and 
>>in this case to assign a concubine  
>>

From where do you get this definition?

From uses within Tanakh, it appears to have the meaning “to call out to a 
meeting” whether small or large. Similar to the Greek εκκαλεω.
 
>>There is a variant reading here. One (the kethiv reading) is the negative lo 
>>which "not" and the other (the qere reading) is  the preposition and 
>>pronominal 
>>suffix lo' which means "to, or for him(self), which is the reading I choose 
>>here"  
>>

Yes I know about the Qere reading, but with my experience that about 90% of the 
time the Qere reading appears to be wrong (this is just counting the 
consonantal 
text, what about the vowels?), in an uncertain verse the odds say I should stay 
with the Kethiv.
 
>>It basically says that a man does not have the right/power/authority to sell 
>>a 
>>woman to foreigners but must redeem her, because of his 
>>faithlessness//treacherousness /deceitfulness with her by not marrying her. 
>>In 
>>an age when women were mostly chattel and goods, this legislation gave basic 
>>human rights to wives/concubines.  
>>

Even if we go with the Kethiv and the female slave has not been used sexually, 
doesn’t this verse give protection to such a female slave? That she’s not just 
goods that can be traded away?

But if we go with the Qere, how does the WHPDH fit in?
 
>>Kevin
>>
>>Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
>>Library Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of Bible, Greek, 
>>Theological Bibliography and Research
>>Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave. 
>>Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
>>423/493-4252 (office) 812/821-4512 (cell) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
>>[email protected]  

Karl W. Randolph. 

>
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
[email protected]
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew

Reply via email to