Dear Richard,

Sorry, I didn't mean to instruct others on how these matters are to be
understood.  Rather, I would like to share my own impressions received from
considering Michael's quotes.

Although it doesn't make sense to me, I suppose the Guardian may have always
understood these to be different Catholic doctrines (Immaculate Conception
of Mary's soul as distinguished from Virgin Conception/Birth of Christ's
body) and yet he may nonetheless have chosen to use the phase "immaculate
conception" to mean the miraculous virgin conception of Christ's body, but
it makes more sense to me that initially the Guardian considered the phrase
"Immaculate Conception" as another way to refer to the Virgin Conception of
Christ's body and learned later the differences between the two Catholic
doctrines of "Immaculate Conception" versus "Virgin Birth".

At any rate, it looks to me like the Guardian never intended to affirm the
Catholic doctrine of the immaculate conception of Mary's soul or that Mary
was uniquely exempted from Original Sin.  As far as I know, the Baha'i
teachings do not affirm the Catholic doctrine of Original Sin.

But I suppose I could be mistaken on all counts.

--- Vaughn


-----Original Message-----
From: Richard H. Gravelly

So, from Michael's quotation #7 we are to understand that
it was understood initially that Immaculate Conception and
Virgin Birth meant the same thing? Now we know that there
was some confusion about the matter and that the Virgin
Birth is the only birth resulting from immaculate
conception.  Is that correct?

Richard.


----- Original Message -----
From: "Vaughn Sheline" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Baha'i Studies" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Sunday, December 28, 2003 9:10 AM
Subject: RE: Questions concerning "Immaculate Conception"


My dictionary defines immaculate as follows,

im�mac�u�late  (adj.)
1. Impeccably clean; spotless.
2. Free from stain or blemish; pure.
3. Free from fault or error: an immaculate record.
4. Having no markings.

In the early (prior to 1948) letters of the Guardian, by
references to the "Immaculate Conception", it seems what
was really meant was only reference to the Virgin Birth
of Christ being immaculate in the sense of being "spotless"
and "pure" and a miracle performed by the Holy Spirit, and
not according to the Catholic doctrine that Mary herself
was miraculously exempted from Original Sin beginning from
the time of the conception of Mary's soul.

I think the Baha'i teachings do not uphold the Catholic
doctrine of Original Sin, much less that Jesus' mother
Mary was miraculously exempted from Original Sin, and the
immaculate conception (meaning only "virgin birth")
applies only to Jesus:

"We believe that Christ only was conceived immaculately."
(From Michael's quotation number 7, written on behalf of
the Guardian in 1945)

It looks to me like by 1948 the Guardian came to understand
that, in Catholic doctrine, Mary's "immaculate conception"
refers *not* to Mary's immaculate conception of Christ but
instead to God's immaculate conception of Mary's soul, and
the Guardian upheld only the Virgin Birth of Christ, not
the immaculacy of Mary's soul:

'At the time when you and your dear husband came into the
Faith the teachings were not as fully translated as they
are now, and there were many misapprehensions regarding
certain matters.  One of them seems to have been the
"Immaculate Conception" or what we really mean is the
Virgin Birth (for the two are different.)  The Master
clearly writes in a Tablet that Christ was *not* begotten
in the ordinary way, but by the Holy Spirit.  So we must
accept this. Every Faith has some miracles, and this is
the great miracle of the Christian Faith.'
(from Michael's quotation number 7, written on behalf of
the Guardian in 1948)

Best regards,
--- Vaughn



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