RFC2328 defines this router to be an ABR. However, there are some issues with this approach. RFC 3509 defines an alternative behavior for ABRs. In summary, when the router connects to multiple areas but not to area 0, the router should not operate as an ABR but instead should operate as if it was internal to all connected areas.
Rajesh Kumar wrote: > > Hello all, > > If a router has its interfaces in Area 1 and Area 2 and no Area 0, is it > > still considered to be an ABR OR strictly, one of the interfaces has to > > be in Area 0 to be an ABR? > > Thanks, > Rajesh Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=72629&t=72624 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
