At 5:17 PM +0000 7/19/03, Rajesh Kumar wrote: >Hello all, > >If a router has its interfaces in Area 1 and Area 2 and no Area 0, is it > >still considered to be an ABR OR strictly, one of the interfaces has to > >be in Area 0 to be an ABR?
In the present implementation, at least one interface must be in area 0.0.0.0. There is a proposal in the OSPF Working Group to allow "inter-area ABRs," but I don't think this is yet commercially available -- it hasn't yet gotten to RFC. Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=72638&t=72624 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
