At 9:05 PM +0000 7/19/03, bergenpeak wrote: >RFC2328 defines this router to be an ABR. However, there are some >issues with this approach. RFC 3509 defines an alternative behavior >for ABRs. In summary, when the router connects to multiple areas >but not to area 0, the router should not operate as an ABR but >instead should operate as if it was internal to all connected areas.
Thanks. I missed the RFC approval. > >Rajesh Kumar wrote: >> >> Hello all, >> >> If a router has its interfaces in Area 1 and Area 2 and no Area 0, is it >> >> still considered to be an ABR OR strictly, one of the interfaces has to >> >> be in Area 0 to be an ABR? >> >> Thanks, > > Rajesh Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=72639&t=72624 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
