I think the key difference between Rehnquist's opinions in Hibbs and Morrison is that 
he believed that the FMLA was about sex equality and did not believe that the civil 
rights provision of VAWA was about sex equality.  In previous rulings, the Court had 
recognized that when states discriminate against women by perpetuating stereotypes 
about them as primary caregivers who belong outside the public workplace, that 
violates the equal protection clause.  That was the kind of discrimination that 
Congress was trying to address with the FMLA.  In contrast, in Morrison Rehnquist did 
not appear to believe that violence against women was a civil rights issue rather than 
a family law issue, even though Congress said that it thought violence against women, 
or at least the state's failure to protect women againt that violence, was a civil 
rights issue.

Rebecca E. Zietlow
Professor of Law
University of Toledo College of Law
(419) 530-2872
[EMAIL PROTECTED] <mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]>



-----Original Message-----
From: Mark Tushnet [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Wednesday, May 28, 2003 1:57 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: FMLA abrogation upheld


I'm getting confused on the Morrison/Hibbs point, so here's a post aimed at attempting 
to straighten out my own thinking.  Any corrections/guidance are welcome.

1.  Morrison's commerce clause holding:  lots of evidence before Congress, etc., but 
all going to whether violence against women has a substantial aggregate effect on 
commerce, and therefore irrelevant because violence against women is not a commercial 
activity subject to the cumulative effects test/principle.

2 (a).  Morrison's fourteenth amendment holding:  evidence of failures in state law 
enforcement systems, arguably violating the constitutional rights of victims of 
gender-based violence, but a remedy aimed at the perpetrators of the violence isn't 
congruent with the constitutional violations.

2 (b)  Morrison's fourteenth amendment holding:  Congress has the power under section 
five to make it criminal -- and so to provide a civil remedy -- for a private person 
to interfere with rights protected by section one
, but gender-based violence doesn't do so.

3.  Hibbs's fourteenth amendment holding:  sufficient evidence of constitutional 
violations by state agencies to justify a remedy that is congruent with the violations 
(targeted at the violators, that is, the states) and proportional to them (that is, 
not overly broad, etc.)

If this understanding of the cases is right, where's the doctrinal tension?

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