A minor emendation to Jack Balkin's post, which says, "We may assume
that after Hibbs .  .  . that the PDA is constitutional as applied to
state employers."  I would have thought that, pending the overruling of
Garcia, the PDA was plainly constitutional in imposing an obligation on
state employers as an exercise of Congress's power to regulate
interstate commerce, that is, employment.  (And that, pending the
modification of Ex parte Young, that obligation was even before Hibbs
enforceable through a prospective injunction -- not that, in the case of
family leave, injunctive relief is likely to be all that helpful in
individual cases.)
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