I think it is an Accounts Payable issue. Whenever they make the payment
they will have a surplus or credit balance in their books so when they
receive the 810 the balance gets adjusted, the same way in Accounts
Receivable. Invoice should be send for recording (accounting) purpouse.
Hope this helps.
"Parks, Howard
(E) Ext 5288" To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
<[EMAIL PROTECTED] cc:
OM> Subject: Re: outbound 810
Sent by:
Electronic Data
Interchange
Issues
<EDI-L@LISTSERV
.UCOP.EDU>
01/17/2001
09:20 AM
Please respond
to "Parks,
Howard (E) Ext
5288"
Not sure why you'd send an invoice for a bill that's already been paid.
Certainly the amount due should be 0. Perhaps there is an adjustment
or special charge code for this?
Howard Parks
1 Peter 4:10
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Freres, Catie [SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Wednesday, January 17, 2001 10:49 AM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: outbound 810
>
> If a payment was made in advance before we shipped, how should I denote
> that
> in the outbound 810?
> I have omitted the days due and due date in the ITD but I wonder if
anyone
> has a better idea or additional suggestion.
> Thanks in advance...
>
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