Why send them was one of my questions and my AR suggested that most
customers still want the paper invoice...for whatever reason so I figured I
do the same.
Plus, when I asked some of my customers, they did not seem to ever run
across this situation and didn't really have an answer for me.
What I've done so far is TD01 = PP which means prepayment and then I omit
the due date from the TD1 and send 0 days due. We'll see what happens when
I start really testing with customers...
Thanks for all comments!
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Javier Ortiz [SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Wednesday, January 17, 2001 12:11 PM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: Re: outbound 810
>
> I think it is an Accounts Payable issue. Whenever they make the payment
> they will have a surplus or credit balance in their books so when they
> receive the 810 the balance gets adjusted, the same way in Accounts
> Receivable. Invoice should be send for recording (accounting) purpouse.
> Hope this helps.
>
>
>
> "Parks, Howard
> (E) Ext 5288" To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> <[EMAIL PROTECTED] cc:
> OM> Subject: Re: outbound 810
> Sent by:
> Electronic Data
> Interchange
> Issues
> <EDI-L@LISTSERV
> .UCOP.EDU>
>
>
> 01/17/2001
> 09:20 AM
> Please respond
> to "Parks,
> Howard (E) Ext
> 5288"
>
>
>
>
>
> Not sure why you'd send an invoice for a bill that's already been paid.
>
> Certainly the amount due should be 0. Perhaps there is an adjustment
> or special charge code for this?
>
> Howard Parks
> 1 Peter 4:10
>
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Freres, Catie [SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> > Sent: Wednesday, January 17, 2001 10:49 AM
> > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > Subject: outbound 810
> >
> > If a payment was made in advance before we shipped, how should I denote
> > that
> > in the outbound 810?
> > I have omitted the days due and due date in the ITD but I wonder if
> anyone
> > has a better idea or additional suggestion.
> > Thanks in advance...
> >
>
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