We get an 824 error message from one of our trading partners when we send
them a zero value invoice. In our case, it's because the goods ordered have
a price of zero. The invoice lines and header are in balance; the trading
partner's application just doesn't expect to see $0 invoices so it calls
them errors.
To clarify my previous suggestion: I would imagine you would have a
non-zero value for one or more lines and a zero total. In order for the
invoice to balance you would need to included an allowance equal to the
total value; I was wondering if there is a special allowance code for
"amount prepaid". I would be surprised if there wasn't.
Howard Parks
1 Peter 4:10
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Freres, Catie [SMTP:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Wednesday, January 17, 2001 2:07 PM
> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> Subject: Re: outbound 810
>
> Why send them was one of my questions and my AR suggested that most
> customers still want the paper invoice...for whatever reason so I figured
> I
> do the same.
> Plus, when I asked some of my customers, they did not seem to ever run
> across this situation and didn't really have an answer for me.
> What I've done so far is TD01 = PP which means prepayment and then I omit
> the due date from the TD1 and send 0 days due. We'll see what happens
> when
> I start really testing with customers...
> Thanks for all comments!
>
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