Question:
If the "winner" of a three way (or more) race fails to get a majority of
people's votes, yet gets a plurality and is declared the 'winner', is he
legitmately the people's representative? What if his other two opponents are
more similarly inclinded and together represent the majority of voters?
Is this minority candidate truly the people's voice?
- Re: Reveaing the Majority Winner Blake Cretney
- Re: Revealing the Majority Winner Bart Ingles
- Re: Revealing the Majority Winner Bart Ingles
- Re: Revealing the Majority Winner David Marsay
- Re: Undressing the majority winner Daniel Davis
- Re: Undressing the majority winne... Charles Fiterman
- Re: Undressing the majority ... Daniel Davis
- Re: Revealing the Majority Winner Mike Ositoff
- Re: Revealing the Majority Winner Wayne M. VanWeerthuizen
