Bart Ingles wrote:
> If the first choice doesn't mean more than lower choices, why do we all
> seem to agree that a candidate with 50.1% of the first choice vote
> should win over someone with 100% of the second choice vote?
Because the candidate with > 50% of 1st choices beats every other
candidate in pair-wise comparisons?
Dave
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Sorry, but apparently I have to do this. :-(
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