One has to wonder whether philosophy is really done in the first
person at all Joe.  I think it is a mistake to believe one has to work
on all that one accepts as knowledge.

On 10 Nov, 11:52, Joseph Polanik <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> Reason Lover wrote:
>
>  >Kant's criticism of Descartes is off target if he considered the Cogito
>  >to be a modus ponens or syllogism. I don't believe Descartes intended
>  >it that way at all.
>
> Descartes denied that he acquired his knowledge this way; but, since he
> stated it in the _Principles of Philosophy_ which he intended to be used
> as a teaching text, it is hard to escape the conclusion that it would be
> taught that way.
>
>  >But since I don't disagree with Kant's critical method, I won't
>  >disagree with his anti-Cartesian argument in terms of his own
>  >interpretation, the purpose of which was to judge transcendentally
>  >whether or not knowledge of the soul's nature was possible at all as
>  >conditioned by the sensibility and then determined by the
>  >understanding.
>
> but is that really an accurate description of the outcome of Kant's
> analysis? based on the quote included with my previous post, it seems to
> me that Kant was saying that I, this instance of self-awareness, am not
> able to know (from the fact of self-awareness alone) either that
> self-awareness is a phenomenon produced by a brain or by a soul.
>
>  >You say Descartes' argument is irrefutably true. But Kant would say
>  >that it is true only analytically, and as such it adds nothing to our
>  >knowledge. And that of course is how Kant pursued this line of
>  >critique. But it adds nothing, not merely because it is circular and
>  >empty, but because there is a hidden, underlying assumption Kant
>  >believed was present in the argument: that the soul can serve as an
>  >object of contemplation for the understanding. This he called a
>  >paralogism.
>
> when you say that the Experiento is 'true only analytically' are you
> suggesting that it is false in some other way or that it is
> uninformative or something else?
>
> after concluding that 'I am' is a true statement, one may try to
> discover whether I, this instance of self-awareness, is a phenomenon
> produced by soul or by brain or both or something(s) else.
>
> however, it is difficult see how Kant found hidden in the simple
> statement 'I am' the rather complex assumption 'the soul can serve as an
> object of contemplation for the understanding'.
>
> it seems to me that all we can say (after learning or deciding that 'I
> am' is necessarily true) is 'I know that I am; but, not what I am'.
> Descartes then proceeds to try to discover whether the I that
> necessarily is is a body or a soul.
>
> Joe
>
> --
> Philosophy is, after all, done ultimately in the first person for the
> first person. --- H-N Castaneda
>
> @[EMAIL PROTECTED]@^@
>      http://what-am-i.net
> @[EMAIL PROTECTED]@^@
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